Exam (elaborations) NURS 656 (NURS656)PMHNP Review Questions Set Answered (2022)
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NURS 656 (NURS656)
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Tennessee State University
ANCC Review Questions (PMHNP IQ) Terms in this set (21) What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade? A) benzotropine (Cogentin) B) bromocriptine (Parlodel) C) dantrolene ( Dantri...
what direct acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of neuroleptic malignant syndrome nms fo help lower the dopamine blockade
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ANCC Review Questions (PMHNP IQ)
Terms in this set (21)
What direct-acting dopamine receptor agonist is recommended to be used in the treatments of
neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) fo help lower the dopamine blockade?
A) benzotropine (Cogentin)
B) bromocriptine (Parlodel)
C) dantrolene (Dantrium)
D) trihexyphenidyl (Artane)
A) Bromocriptine (Parlodel) is the recommended direct acting dopamine receptor agonist to help
decrease the dopamine blockade. Danrolene (Dantrium) is a muscle relaxant. Benzotropine (Cogentin)
and Trihexyphenidyl (Artane) are anticholinergic medications used for extrapyramidal side effects (EPS).
Mr. Smith is a 56 year old white male who has been successfully treated on Selegiline for over 4 years.
Mr. Smith is going in for elective surgical procedure. Which medication is strictly contraindicated with
Selegiline?
A) Non-steroidal anti-inflammatory drugs (NSAIDS)
B) Codeine
C) Morphine
D) Meperidine
D) Meperidine is strictly prohibited when a patient is treated on a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI)
due to the risk of hypertensive crisis and death.
A WBC of 4,000 in a patient taking Clozapine would prompt the PMHNP to take which of the following
actions?
A) Consult with hematologist to determine appropriate antibiotic regimen and monitor closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
C) Discontinue clozapine, initiate alternative antipsychotic medication and monitor closely.
D) Institute daily complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
B) Institute twice-weekly complete blood count with differentials and monitor closely.
The recommended cut-points for discontinuation of clozapine are WBC of 2,000 to 3,000 or granulocytes
of 1,000 to 1,500 for agranulocytosis and severely compromised immune system. At a WBC of 4,000, the
recommendation is to closely monitor CBC with differential twice a week while patient may continue
clozapine in the absence of any other signs or symptoms.
A patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia has a history of suicidal ideation and suicide attempts. The
PMHNP should consider which antipsychotic medication that is the only antipsychotic to reduce the risk
of suicide in schizophrenia?
,A) Abilify (aripriprazole)
B) Latuda (lurasidone)
C) Invega (iloperidone)
D) Clozaril (clozapine)
D) Clozaril (clozapine) is the only known antipsychotic medication that had been shown to reduce the
risk of suicide in patients diagnosed with schizophrenia.
A patient being treated for major depressive disorder and on sertraline (Zoloft), 150 mg po daily for the
past 16 years, presents to the psychiatric mental health practitioner for an outpatient follow-up visit.
During the visit she states that she has not been feeling well, reporting the flu. She also states she has
not taken her medication in the last five days. Which of the following symptoms would she be describing
if you suspect selective serotonin reputable inhibitors (SSRIs) discontinuation syndrome?
A) Agitation, nausea, dysphoria, and diequilibrium
B) Agitation, nausea, tremor, and ataxia.
C) Restlessness, tremor, fever, and shivering.
D) Restlessness, headache, increased heart rate, and diarrhea.
A) Agitation; nausea, dysphoria, and disequilibrium
The patient has SSRI discontinuation syndrome and would be presenting with flu-like symptoms. If the
patient had serotonin syndrome, she would present with symptoms of autonomic instability.
Which of the following statements reflect the current understanding of dopamine (DA) pathways and
clinical symptoms in schizophrenia?
A) Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are related to
DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
B) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are related to
DA deficit in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
C) Negative symptoms are related to DA excess in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms are related
to DA deficit in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.
Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the mesolimbic system; positive symptoms are related to
DA excess in the substantia nigra and ventral tegmental area.
A) Negative symptoms are related to DA deficit in the cerebral cortex; positive symptoms are related to
DA excess in the nucleus accumbens and mesolimbic system.
Negative symptoms & cognitive impairment are thought to be related to hypoactivity of the mesocortical
dopiminergic tract, which by its association with the prefrontal cortex and neocortex contributes to
motivation, planning, sequencing of behaviors in time, attention, and social behavior. Positive symptoms
(hallucination and delusions) are thought to be caused by dopamine hyperactivity in the mesolimbic
,tract, which regulates emotion. This hyperactivity could result in overactive modulation of
nueurotransmission from the nucleus accumbens.
Norepinephrine is a neurotransmitter that is implicated in alertness and anxiety. What area of the brain
has a large majority of norepinephrine neurons?
A) Amygdala
B) Hippocampus
C) Locus Coeruleus
D) Nucleus Accumbens
C) Locus coeruleus
There are two areas in the brain that produce norepinephrine neurons, one is the locus coeruleus and
the other is the medullary reticular formation.
Which cytochrome (CYP) enzyme is implicated as a tobacco inducer when an individual is treated on
clozapine?
A) 1A2
B) 2D6
C) 2C9
D) 2C19
A) 1A2
When an individual is treated on clozapine and decreases tobacco use, the clozapine level with increase,
as tobacco is an inducer to the clozapine, and the patient no longer needs the higher dose of clozapine.
When working with an avoidant patient with a history of trauma, what type of communication
techniques are helpful?
A) Techniques to decrease arousal
B) Clarification and close-ended questions
C) Techniques to increase arousal
D) Reflection and open-ended questions.
C) Techniques to increase arousal
Activation is needed to allow memories stored in the amygdala to be processed.
The PMHNP knows that the ego is a part of the personality and is the logical/rational mind including
defense mechanisms. What might this personality part say?
A) "I should"
B) "I want"
, C) "I evaluate"
D) "I ought"
C) "I evaluate"
The ego is the logical and rational mind. The ego monitors the is and would say "I think. I evaluate."
Mr. Jones, a 78 year old patient, presents to the PMHNP for a follow-up medication appointment. Mr.
Jones' depression has been successfully treated with citalopram 20 mg by mouth daily. During the visit,
Mr Jones complains that in the last 2 or 3 weeks, he has had nausea, fatigue, feeling weak, with a
headache and decreased appetite. Which action would be most appropriate for Mr. Jones?
A) Assess for other symptoms of hyponatremia and check a serum sodium level.
B) Discuss SSRI discontinuation syndrome and stress importance of medication adherence.
C) Discuss rates of relapse on a SSRI and increase his medication to citalopram 40 mg by mouth daily.
D) Discuss rates of relapse on a SSRI and recommend switching his medication to a different class.
A) Assess for other symptoms of hyponatremia and check serum sodium level.
Hyponatremia can occur on SSRIs, and is more common in elderly patients. This patient is reporting
symptoms of moderate hyponatremia and needs to be assessed, and his sodium levels need to be
checked.
Normal sodium level: 135-145 mEq/L
The PMHNP mental health nurse practitioner treating a patient for schizophrenia on ziprasidone orders
an electrocardiograph. Which QTc interval result places the patient at greatest risk for torsades de
pointes?
A) 100-200 milliseconds
B) 160-260 milliseconds
C) 300-500 milliseconds
D) 500-700 milliseconds
D) 500-700 milliseconds
A patient with a QTc interval of 500-700 milliseconds is at a higher risk of developing torsades de pointes.
Which lab test should be ordered to rule out a medical cause of dementia symptoms?
A) Albumin
B) thiamine
C) Vitamin D3
D) Vitamin B12
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