NR 511 TEST BANK.How many sets of Kegels should be done each day to help with urinary incontinence?
-Three sets of 10 a day
2. What is the first line treatment for allergic rhinitis?
- intranasal corticosteroid—ie: Flonase.
3. What is the term used for the loss of high-pitched tones in ge...
nr 511 test bank aanp fnp lightning round review 2 1how many sets of kegels should be done each day to help with urinary incontinence three sets of 10 a day 2 what is the first line treatment f
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NR 511 TEST BANK.
AANP-FNP lightning round review-#2
1.How many sets of Kegels should be done each day to help with urinary incontinence?
-Three sets of 10 a day
2. What is the first line treatment for allergic rhinitis?
- intranasal corticosteroid—ie: Flonase.
3. What is the term used for the loss of high-pitched tones in geriatrics?
-Presbycusis
4. What type of hearing loss does cerumen impaction cause?
- Conductive hearing loss
5. You see an older woman bending over leaving on her shopping cart at the grocery store. What is the likely
diagnosis?
-Spinal stenosis
6. Multiple myeloma is disease of what?
-Plasma cells
7. What test in the office can you use to help diagnose sciatica?
- Straight leg test (Always pick the cheapest, most noninvasive tests first!!)
8. I have heel pain that is worse in the morning. What is my likely diagnosis?
- Plantar fasciitis
90. The Lachman test is used to help diagnose what?
- ACL
10. Other tests for acl include
-anterior and posterior drawer tests
11. What is the treatment for gout and what would be the medication instructions for a flare?
- Colchicine and take 1.2 mg at the first sign of flare, followed in 1 hour with a single dose of 0.6 mg.
12. What is a sign of colchicine toxicity?
- Diarrhea
13. What is a common cause of posterior knee pain?
-Baker’s cyst
14. Cotton wool spots, neovascularization and microaneurysms are all Eye exam findings in what condition?
-Diabetes
15. And what about AV nicking and what it is?
- HTN, when an artery crosses over a vein
16. What is the treatment for bacterial sinusitis?
-Augmentin
17. I’m tired, have a sore throat and swollen posterior cervical nodes on exam. What is the likely diagnosis? -
Mono--The best thing I can say to help differentiate those two for memory is that P in posterior is closer to
M in mono in the alphabet so that’s how I remember!
18. Recall that swollen ANTERIOR cervical nodes are seen in
- strep.
19. What is a common side effect of Pyridium, an anti-spasmodic for dysuria?
-Orange colored urine
20. What would be included in your list of differentials for hematuria?
-Bladder cancer, kidney stones, exercise induced, trauma, medications, infection, and BPH are the most
common reasons
21. What is the medication treatment for MRSA?
,Bactrim
22. What are some symptoms a patient with lupus would complain of?
- Fatigue, malar rash aka butterfly rash, and joint aches.
23.And what is the lab that you would order it to confirm it?
-ANA
24. What is the term used to describe dry, itching skin?
-Xerosis
25. What is the most common kind of skin cancer?
- Basal cell carcinoma reminder that this cancer presents as a pearly domed nodule, pink or flesh colored
and usually has telangiectasia present
26. What medication is used to treat a cat or dog bite?
-Augmentin (dogmantin)
27. What do you think of when you hear a bright beefy red rash and what is the treatment?
- Candidiasis and treatment is topical anti-fungal (e.g diaper rash)
28. How would you describe the prostate in BPH?
- Firm, rubbery, smooth and symmetrically enlarged. NB that prostate cancer on the other hand is
asymmetrical
29. A1C> what is considered T2DM? >6.5%
30. My A1C is >10, what would be the medication of choice? Insulin (also first choice medication if fasting
glucose is >300!)
31. Hypothyroidism is most common in what population?
- Women >50yrs
32. Your pediatric pt has bloody discharge in his ear, what’s the likely dx?
- Ruptured TM
33. Your patient presents with a burn and blisters are present. What degree burn is this?
-2nd degree
34 What is the treatment for pertussis?
- Macrolide (Azithromycin)
35. What bug causes the greatest mortality in community acquired pneumonia? Strep pneumo
36. What would be seen on xray of a pt with TB? A black circle usually in the upper lobes
37. Most common side effect of long-term inhaled corticosteroid use?
-Osteopenia and cataracts
38. S3 heart sound is a sign of what?
-Congestive heart failure (keep in mind they’re normal during pregnancy)
39. What medication do use to treat a fib?
- Beta blockers
40. What is pulsus paradoxus?
- A decrease in systolic pressure with inspiration usually seen in asthmatics...to measure use a blood
pressure cuff and stethoscope
41. The upcoming July 4th holiday reminds you of what diagnosis?
, -Raynauds ..red white and blue color changing of the hands. Tx? CCBs
42. Someone with high triglyceride levels is at increased risk of what?
-Pancreatitis
43. Subclinical hypothyroidism is described as what lab readings?
-High TSH with a normal T4
44. A positive Markle test is significant of what?
-Appendicitis ...recall that the Markle test is also known as the heel jar in which the patient raises their heels
then drop them suddenly and if they experience pain it’s positive for appendicitis
45. What differentials do you think of in someone with left upper quadrant pain?
-Gastritis, pancreatitis, myocardial infarction, and left lower lobe pneumonia.
46. What about left lower quadrant?
-Diverticulitis
47. A positive Murphy’s sign is indicative of what?
-Cholecystitis.
48. What diagnostic test would you order if this were positive?
- An ultrasound
49. What is the first line treatment for GERD?
- H2 blockers
50. I was going to go over hepatitis B markers but I think it’s harder to say that out loud versus seeing it on
paper so going to skip that but of course remember to review those for the exam too!
51. What diagnostic test should be done for suspicion of appendicitis?
-CT scan ...you should also do a CT scan for diverticulitis and speaking of diverticulitis what is the treatment?
Cipro and Flagyl
52. What is the confirmatory test for HIV? Per Leik 3rd edition,
Step 1: Order HIV-1/HIV-2 antibodies and P24 antigen (combination assay) with reflexes. "Reflex" means
that if positive, the lab will automatically perform the follow-up test to confirm the results.
53. What is the treatment for syphilis?
-Pcn G (for all stages of it)
54. And what are some presenting features of syphilis? Rashes on soles of feet and palms of hands, painless
lesions (chancre)
55. Gonorrhea treatment? Rocephin (“gone-a-cephin” helps me remember this one!)
56. Cervicitis is seen in which diagnoses?
-Chlamydia and gonorrhea
57. I am a healthy 63-year-old patient, what is my goal BP according to JNC 8?
- <150/90 for 60yrs+. Recall that less than 60yrs is <140/90 in addition to those with DM and CKD
58. What should we keep in mind when prescribing for the elderly population?
, -May have to start with half dose and increase slowly, side effects!! Especially anticholinergics
59. A low HDL and high trig level always means what?
-Insulin insufficiency
60. The S1 is the closure of which valves?
-AV valves, and S2 is closure of semilunar valves
61. On exam you feel a weakened peripheral pulse, what diagnosis do you think of?
- PAD
62. An absent red reflex is indicative of what?
Cataract
63. During an eye exam you note absent venous pulsations, what is this related to?
-Papilledema
64. The Dix Hallpike maneuver is used to test for what condition?
-Vertigo
65. What is the most well-known medication treatment for Vertigo?
- Meclizine
66. What medication is prescribed for essential tremors?
-BB (propranolol)
67. A young adult patient states that she is experiencing episodes of vision loss and abnormal limb
sensations. What would be at the top of your list of differentials?
- MS---and what would you do? REFER TO NEURO
68. When assessing a patient for dementia, what is the FIRST and best thing you should do?
-GET A GOOD HX FROM PT BUT ALSO FAMILY
69. Name a difference between dementia and delirium?
- Dementia is slow progress, delirium happens RAPIDLY
70. What is the MAIN cause of delirium?
-Infection
71. Cranial Nerves review (just going over the MAIN ones I’ve seen in reviews/questions for the exam)
--nose: 1
--vision: 2
--EOM: 3, 4, and 6
--trigeminal: 5 (trigeminal neuralgia)
--facial: 7 (bell’s palsy)—HSV can cause Bell’s Palsy (keep in mind!)
--ears: 8
--shoulders: 11
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