OB nclex Exam 3 Practice questions & Answers, 100% Accurate, rated A+
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OB nclex Exam 3 Practice questions & Answers, 100% Accurate, rated A+
Your pregnant patient is in her first trimester and is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound. When explaining the rationale for early pregnancy ultrasound, the best response is:
a. "The test will help to determine the ba...
rated a your pregnant patient is in her first trimester and is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound when explaining the rationale
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OB nclex Exam 3 Practice questions &
Answers, 100% Accurate, rated A+
Your pregnant patient is in her first trimester and is scheduled for an abdominal ultrasound. When
explaining the rationale for early pregnancy ultrasound, the best response is:
a. "The test will help to determine the baby's position."
b. "The test will help to determine how many weeks you are pregnant."
c. "The test will help to determine if your baby is growing appropriately."
d. "The test will help to determine if you have a boy or girl." - ✔✔-b. Fetal growth and size are fairly
consistent during the first trimester and are a reliable indicator of the weeks of gestation.
Your pregnant patient is having maternal alpha-fetoprotein (AFP) screening. She does not understand
how a test on her blood can indicate a birth defect in the fetus. The best reply by the nurse is:
a. "We have done this test for a long time."
b. "If babies have a neural tube defect, alpha-fetoprotein leaks out of the fetus and is absorbed into your
blood, causing your level to rise. This serum blood test detects that rise."
c. "Neural tube defects are a genetic anomaly, and we examine the amount of alpha-fetoprotein in your
DNA."
d. "If babies have a neural tube defect, this results in a decrease in your level of alpha-fetoprotein." -
✔✔-b. When a neural tube defect is present, AFP is absorbed in the maternal circulation, resulting in a
rise in the maternal AFP level.
The primary complications of amniocentesis are:
a. Damage to fetal organs
b. Puncture of umbilical cord
c. Maternal pain
d. Infection - ✔✔-d. Amniocentesis involves insertion of a needle into the amniotic sac, and infection is
the primary complication.
,Your patient is 34 weeks pregnant and during a regular prenatal visit tells you she does not understand
how to do "kick counts." The best response by the nurse would be to explain:
a. "Here is an information sheet on how to do kick counts."
b. "It is not important to do kick counts because you have a low-risk pregnancy."
c. "Fetal kick counts are not a reliable indicator of fetal well-being in the third trimester."
d. "Fetal movements are an indicator of fetal well-being. You should count twice a day, and you should
feel 10 fetal movements in 2 hours." - ✔✔-d. This response provides the patient with information on
how to do kick counts and the rationale for doing kick counts and criteria for normal fetal movement.
Your patient is a 37-year-old pregnant woman who is 5 weeks pregnant and is considering genetic
testing. During your discussion, the woman asks the nurse what the advantages of chorionic villus
sampling (CVS) are over amniocentesis. The best response is:
a. "You will need anesthesia for amniocentesis, but not for CVS."
b. "CVS is a faster procedure."
c. "CVS provides more detailed information than amniocentesis."
d. "CVS can be done earlier in your pregnancy, and the results are available more quickly." - ✔✔-d. CVS
can be done earlier in gestation
The clinic nurse meets with Rebecca, a 30-year-old woman who is experiencing her first pregnancy.
Rebecca's quadruple marker screen result is positive at 17 weeks' gestation. The nurse explains that
Rebecca needs a referral to:
a. A genetics counselor/specialist
b. An obstetrician
c. A gynecologist
d. A social worker - ✔✔-a. All women should be offered screening with maternal serum markers. The
Triple Marker screen and the Quadruple Marker screen test for the presence of alpha-fetoprotein (AFP),
estradiol, human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG), and other markers. These tests screen for potential
neural tube defects, Down syndrome, and Trisomy 18. If the screen is positive, the woman should be
referred to a genetics specialist for counseling, and further testing, such as chorionic villus sampling
(CVS) or amniocentesis, should be performed.
A 37-year-old woman who is 17 weeks pregnant has had an amniocentesis. Before discharge, the nurse
teaches the woman to call her doctor if she experiences which of the following side effects?
,a. Pain at the puncture site
b. Macular rash on the abdomen
c. Decrease in urinary output
d. Cramping of the uterus - ✔✔-d. The woman should report any uterine cramping. Although rare,
amniocentesis could stimulate preterm labor.
A laboratory report indicates the L/S ratio (lecithin/sphingomyelin) results from an amniocentesis of a
gravid patient with preeclampsia are 2:1. The nurse interprets the result as which of the following?
a. The baby's lung fields are mature.
b. The mother is high risk for hemorrhage.
c. The baby's kidneys are functioning poorly.
d. The mother is high risk for eclampsia. - ✔✔-a. An L/S ratio of 2:1 usually indicates that the fetal lungs
are mature.
A client on 2 gm/hr of magnesium sulfate has decreased deep tendon reflexes. Identify the priority
nursing assessment to ensure client safety.
a. Assess uterine contractions continuously.
b. Assess fetal heart rate continuously.
c. Assess urinary output.
d. Assess respiratory rate. - ✔✔-d. Respiratory effort and deep tendon reflexes (DTRs) are involuntary,
and a decrease in DTRs could indicate the risk of magnesium sulfate toxicity and the risk for decreased
respiratory effort.
A pregnant client with a history of multiple sexual partners is at highest risk for which of the following
complications:
a. Premature rupture of membranes
b. Gestational diabetes
c. Ectopic pregnancy
d. Pregnancy-induced hypertension - ✔✔-c. A history of multiple sexual partners places the client at a
higher risk of having contracted a sexually transmitted disease that could have ascended the uterus to
the fallopian tubes and caused fallopian tube blockage, placing the client at high risk for an ectopic
pregnancy.
, Identify the hallmark of placenta previa that differentiates it from abruptio placenta.
a. Sudden onset of painless vaginal bleeding
b. Board-like abdomen with severe pain
c. Sudden onset of bright red vaginal bleeding
d. Severe vaginal pain with bright red bleeding - ✔✔-a. When the placenta attaches to the lower uterine
segment near or over the cervical os, bleeding may occur without the onset of contractions or pain.
Which of the following assessments would indicate instability in the client hospitalized for placenta
previa?
a. BP <90/60 mm/Hg, Pulse <60 BPM or >120 BPM
b. FHR moderate variability without accelerations
c. Dark brown vaginal discharge when voiding
d. Oral temperature of 99.9°F - ✔✔-a. A decrease in BP accompanied by bradycardia or tachycardia is an
indication of hypovolemic shock.
During pregnancy, poorly controlled asthma can place the fetus at risk for:
a. Hyperglycemia
b. IUGR
c. Hypoglycemia
d. Macrosomia - ✔✔-b. Compromised pulmonary function can lead to decompensation and hypoxia that
decrease oxygen flow to the fetus and can cause intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR).
Which of the following nursing diagnoses is of highest priority for a client with an ectopic pregnancy
who has developed disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)?
a. Risk for deficient fluid volume
b. Risk for family process interrupted
c. Risk for disturbed identity
d. High risk for injury - ✔✔-a. The client is at high risk for hypovolemia which is life threatening and
takes precedence over any psychosocial or less pressing diagnoses.
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