PAR 100 All Quizes Combined. Graded A+

PAR 100 All Quizes Combined Block 1 Volume 1 Quiz 8 1. Adequate perfusion depends on: a. The presence of oxygen in blood b. Adequate production of carbon dioxide c. Blood pressure and the presence of oxygen in the blood d. Blood pressure 2. The type of blood that may be administered to all people in an emergency, regardless of their blood type is, a. AB positive b. O positive c. O negative d. AB negative 3. Which of the following is a response to histamine release? a. Release of leukotrienes b. Suppression of lysosomal enzymes c. Decrease in vascular wall permeability d. Increase blood flow to the site of injury 4. Which of the following is NOT one of the body’s three chief lines of defense against infection and injury? a. Immune response b. Homeopathic secretions c. Inflammatory response d. Anatomic barriers 5. The excess elimination of hydrogen ions, as many occur in vomiting, can result in: a. Respiratory alkalosis b. Respiratory acidosis c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Metabolic acidosis 6. You are presented with a pt displaying Urticaria, dyspnea, hypotension, nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. This pt is MOST likely suffering from which type of hypersensitivity reaction? a. Type 1 b. Type 2 c. Type 3 d. Type 4 7. The spleen is a part of which organ system a. Digestive b. Lymphatic c. Endocrine d. Cardiovascular 8. Which of the following processes is used when glucose enters a cell? a. Osmosis b. Facilitated diffusion c. Diffusion d. Active Transport 9. The general term for the storing and creating energy in the body is? a. Homeostasis b. Negative Feedback c. Granulation d. Metabolism 10. The process that produces an increase in cell size as a result of increasing workload is? a. Hypertrophy b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Metaplasia 11. B lymphocytes are primarily responsible for: a. Neutralizing antibodies b. Producing antigens c. Producing antibodies d. Directly attacking antigens 12. A pt was shot in the abdomen and has a resultant massive hemorrhage and hypoperfusion, IV therapy would help treat hypoperfusion by? a. Slowing the rate of hemorrhage b. Increasing the heart rate c. Replacing blood constituents d. Increasing preload 13. Which of the following terms can be defined as the activities of the body that allow the maintenance of physiological stability a. Homeostasis b. Metabolism c. Dysplasia d. Natural stability 14. The amount of blood that returns to the heart during diastole a. Cardiac output b. Preload c. Afterload d. Myocardial capacity 15. Most of the formed elements of the blood are a. Erythrocytes b. Stem cells c. Leukocytes d. Thrombocytes 16. The sagittal plane separates right and left portions of the body True or Flase? a. True b. False 17. The largest percentage of water in body is located in the? a. Interstitial fluid b. Extracellular fluid c. Extrastitial fluid d. Intracellular fluid 18. Blood pressure is represented by a. Preload - afterload b. Cardiac output x peripheral vascular resistance c. Stroke volume x heart rate d. Cardiac contractile force – peripheral vascular resistance 19. Septic shock is precipitated by a. An overwhelming infection b. Exposure to an antigen c. Poisoning d. MODS 20. Solution having a comparatively higher concentration of solutes is said to be a. Osmotic b. Hypotonic c. Hypertonic d. Isotonic 21. Positively charged atom a. Anion b. Cation c. Bicarbinate 22. Tissue that lines the external body surface a. Epithelial b. Smooth c. Cardiac d. Skeletal 23. The term pH is a measure of a. Sodium hydroxide concentration b. Carbonic acid concentration c. Hydrogen ion concentration d. Sodium bicarbonate concentration 24. On average human body is what percent of water a. 60% b. 70% c. 50% d. 80% 25. Which of the following terms describes a substance moving from higher concentration to lower concentration? a. Diffusion b. Osmosis c. Active transport d. Facilitated diffusion 26. Primary constituent of plasma is a. Clotting factors b. Proteins c. Electrolytes d. Water 27. Substance that separate into electrically charged particles in water a. Electrolytes b. Anions c. Elements d. Atomic particals 28. The process in which the size of the cell decreases from decreasing workload is a. Metaplasia b. Atrophy c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy 29. Pulmonary edema is characteristic of what classification of hypoperfusion? a. Neurogenic b. Hypovolemic c. Cardiogenic d. Septic 30. The level of structural organization that consists of groups of tissues working together is an a. Organ systems b. Organelle c. Organism d. Organ 31. T lymphocytes are primarily responsible for a. Directly attacking antigens b. Producing antigens c. Producing antibodies d. Neutralizing antigens 32. The preferred resuscitation fluid for a pt with an ongoing gi bleed is? a. PCRB’s b. Whole blood c. Normal saline d. Plasma 33. The most abundant cation in intracellular fluid is a. Potassium b. Sodium c. Chloride d. Sodium Bicarb 34. Shock can be best described as a. Hypotension b. Decreased cardiac output c. A state inadequate tissue perfusion d. A decrease in myocardial contraction 35. The shift of intravascular fluid to interstitial space is called a. Third space fluid loss b. Diuresis c. Insensible water loss d. Turgor 36. Which of the following ph values indicates acidosis in the body a. 7.4 b. 7.35 c. 7.3 d. 7.45 37. The most abundant cation in extracellular fluid is a. Chloride b. Sodium c. Potassium d. Magnesium 38. A change in cell size shape and appearance caused by an external stressor is? a. Dysplasia b. Metaplasia c. Hyperplasia d. Hypertrophy Quiz 1-9 1. You are caring for an elderly female w/suspected vertebral fx and a known hx of spontaneous fx secondary to osteoporosis, She freq takes a hydrocodone containing preparation (vicoprofen) for pain. W/ her current injury you find it necessary to administer a greater than expected dosage of morphine. To what is this need for a higher dosage due a. Synergism b. Cross tolerance c. Psych dependency d. Potentiation 2. Which of the following is not typically assoc w/type I diabetes a. Insulin dependency b. Obesity c. Juvenile onest d. Inadequate insulin release from the beta cells of pancreatic islets 3. In a patient experiencing an MI admin a med that reduces Afterload is beneficial because a. Prolong the q-t interval, thereby allowing time for complete atrial contribution to the ventricle b. Improves the stroke volume of blood ejected from the heart by also reducing preload c. Reduces the blood flow to unnecessary areas, redirecting blood to the heart d. Reduces the workload of the heart redirecting myocardial oxygen consumption 4. Tricyclic antidepressants achieve the therapeutic effect by a. Prolonging the duration of norepinephrine and serotonin at the receptor sites b. Blocking the release of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse c. Blocking the release of acetylcholine at the synapse d. Enhancing degradation of norepinephrine and serotonin at the synapse 5. The chief physiological effect of nerve gases such as VX and sarin are to a. Produce an adrenergic blockade throughout the body b. Competitively block the muscarininc receptor sites at the target organs c. Competitively block the nicotinic receptor sites at the neuromuscular junction d. Irreversibly block the enzyme cholinesterase 6. Which of the following statements about antibiotics is NOT true? a. Viruses are not susceptible to antibiotics b. An individual who has developed a resistance to one type of antibiotics will typically respond well to other antibiotics in a similar class c. Because antibiotics are generally so safe, they are prescribed indiscriminately, even for unknown viral infections. d. Antibiotics typically achieve their therapeutic action by destroying the bacterial cell wall 7. You are caring for a young mother that jnust gave birth to her first child. Despite taking appropriate measures, she continues to exhibit postpartum hemorrhage. In addition to crystalloid intravenous infusions what medication might you consider to manage this patient? a. Oxytocin (pitocin) b. Terb c. Dopamine d. Epi solution 8. Which of the following statements about warfarin (coumadin) is NOT true? a. It was originally used as rat poison b. It prevents coagulation by antagonizing the effects of vitamin K c. It actively breaks down the fibrin network, thereby dissolving formed thrombi d. It helps treat chronic atrial fibrillation 9. What term best describes the effects a drug has on its target organs a. bioavalability b. pharmacokinetics c. pharmacodynamics d. biotransformation 10. The paramedics chief concern with patients taking Viagra is a. acute renal failure b. cardiac dysthrhymias c. agitation and combative behavior d. hypotension 11. An important distinction between analgesics and anesthesia is a. analgesics are reversible, whereas anesthesia are not b. anesthesia can only be administered intravenously c. anesthesia block all sensations d. analgesics produce unconsciousness in high doses 12. All laxatives are similar in that they a. Increase peristalsis via direct stimulation b. Reduce the molecular bonds of colon contents c. Reduce surface surfactant, thereby improving passage d. Increase the water content in the colon e. Decrease surface surfactant, thereby improving passage f. Increase bulk in the intestine 13. Sympathetic nervous system stimulation that results in vasoconstriction and some bronchoconstriction is most likely affecting a. beta2 receptor sites b. beta1 receptor sites c. alpha2 receptor sites d. alpha1 receptor sites 14. According to Frank Starling’s law, the administration of nitrogen will result in a. increased preload, increased stroke volume, and decreased myocardial oxygen demand b. decreased preload, increased stroke volume, and decreased myocardial oxygen demand c. decreased preload, decreased stroke volume, and increased myocardial oxygen demand d. decreased preload, decreased stroke volume, and decreased myocardial oxygen demand 15. An important physiological distinction between the sympathetic and parasympathetic divisions of the autonomic nervous system is a. the sympathetic ganglia are close to the spinal cord b. only the sympathetic division innervates the target organs or tissue directly c. the sympathetic division does not use acetylcholine as a neurotransmitter d. The parasympathetic nervous system contains no ganglionic fibers. 16. A drug with a wax like base that melts at body temperature allowing absorption into body tissue is called a a. suppository b. capsule c. suspension d. elixir 17. Glucagon will affect blood glucose levels by a. enhancing the absorption of glucose from the gastrointestional tract thereby increasing blood glucose levels b. inducing glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis, thereby increasing blood glucose levels c. inducing the storage of glucose into the liver and skeletal muscle through glycogenesis, thereby decreasing blood glucose levels d. enabling the rapid absorption of glucose into the cells thereby decreasing blood glucose levels. 18. Which of the following drug names are the same a. chemical and genetic b. chemical and trade c. brand and trade d. proprietary and official 19. If a drug were to block the nicotinic receptors at the neuromuscular junction, what symptomatic effect might this have on the patient? a. Increase gastric motility b. Inability to move voluntary and involuntary muscles c. Papillary constriction d. Decrease in heart rate 20. Which of the following is a generic name of a drug a. Tylenol b. Acetaminophen c. Excedrin d. Motrin 21. A beta 2 specific agonist causes which of the following physiologic responses a. Bronchoconstriction b. Increased heart rate c. Bronchodilation d. Decreased heart rate 22. Which of the following medications will have the greatest impact on reducing stroke volume? a. Dobutamine b. Furosemide c. Digoxin d. Dopamine 23. You are seeing a 69 year old female patient complaining of fatigue and nausea. She has a history of heart failure, and two previous MI’s. She reports having blurred vision with halos around objects. Her vitals are blood pressure of 144 over 88, her pulse is 110 and irregular, her respirations are 16. What should you suspect is causing her symptoms. a. Toxic blood levels of digoxin b. New onset heart failure with impaired cerebral perfusion c. Acute closed angle glaucoma d. Cerebral embolus secondary to atrial fibrillation 24. You have been instructed to administer a protein binding medication to a 10 month old patient. With this in mind, which of the following statements is true. a. Children under 1 year of age have less plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug will have a diminished effect. b. Children under 1 year of age have more plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug will have a diminished effect. c. Children under 1 year of age have less plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug will have a greater effect. d. Children under 1 year of age have more plasma proteins than older children, thus the drug with have a diminished effect. 25. Viagra achieves its therapeutic action in the treatment of erectile dysfunction by. a. Enhancing neuronal stimulation of the amygdale in the brain b. Relaxing vascular smooth muscle, which increases blood flow to the corpus cavernosum c. Stimulating sympathetic receptors in the nerve fibers leading to the sexual organs d. Stimulating parasympathetic receptors in the nerve fibers leading to the sexual organs. 26. Which of the following in NOT associated with the sympathetic nervous system? a. Vagus nerve b. Thoracolumbar c. Flight or fight d. Adrenergic 27. Oxytocin is frequently used in the prehospital setting to. a. Stop preterm labor contractions b. Control seizures from eclampsia of pregnancy c. Help control postpartum hemorrhage d. Facilitate labor and induce delivery 28. An antimetic phenothiazine (compazine, phenergan) have which of the following undesirable side effects a. Euphoria b. Hallucinations c. Diarrhea d. Extrapyramidal effects 29. You respond to the aid of a 19 year old who is reported to have taken an overdose of a prescribed medication. She exhibits combativeness and sever tremors. Her blood pressure is 160 over 100, and her pulse is 132. Sinus tach appears of her ECG. Which of the following classifications of drugs is more likely to cause these symptoms? a. Barbiturates b. Benzos c. Amphetamines d. Opiates 30. Which of the following pharmacokinetic processes would be least affected by the hypotensive state of a patient in Cardiogenic shock a. Absorption b. Distribution c. Elimination d. Biotransformation 31. When administering glucagons to a patient, it is important to remember that. a. Glycogen stores must be available in the liver and muscle for glucagons to be effective. b. It is only effective in patients with elevated blood glucose levels. c. Glucagons can only be administered intravenously d. Glucagons will stimulate glycogenesis in a hypoglycemic patient 32. Shortly after treating your patient for a cardiac dysrhythmia, your patient complains of dry mouth, blurred vision, palpitations, and sensitivity to light. Which drug might you have administered too much of? a. Adenosine b. Atropine c. Lidocaine d. Amiodarone e. Aspirin 33. Which of the following is not associated with the parasympathetic division of the autonomic nervous system? a. Feed and breed b. Craniosacral c. Cholinergic d. Short preganglionic neurons 34. A college student in an effort to improve test scores, takes a drug, intelliboost, which enhances cortical function by increasing dopamine release in the brain. It just so happens that he also is taking a cold remedy, sneezeless, which inhibits the chemical breakdown of dopamine at all receptor sites. Which of the following best describes the drug interactions.. a. Sneezeless and itelliboost have an additive effect b. Sneezeless has a cumulative effect c. Sneezeless potentiations the effects of intelliboost d. Sneezeless and intelliboost have a synergistic effect. 35. Medications best suited for treating bronchoconstriction generally stimulate? a. Beta 2 receptor sties b. Beta 1 receptor sites c. Alpha 1 receptor sites d. Alpha 2 receptor sites 36. methylpheridate (Ritalin), a drug used to treat attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD), achieves its therapeutic action by a. inhibiting the CNS and a concomitant state, allowing for less distraction and greater focus b. stimulating the CNS, which in ADHD has a idiosyncratic sedation effect, allowing greater concentration. c. Inhibiting the CNS, which in ADHD has a profound sedation effect, allowing greater concentration. d. Stimulating the CNS and causing a heightened awareness and arousal, allowing for greater focus. 37. Which of the following statements about bronchial asthma is true? a. Prednisone and methyprednisone should be reserved for only the most sever asthma attacks. b. Ipratopium (Atrovent) is often added to beta agonists to treat bronchospasm, because it works through a different mechanism that relax bronchial smooth muscle. c. The nonselective sympathomimetics continue to be the most popular treatments for mild to moderate asthma attacks. d. People with bronchial asthma maintain symptom free lifestyles with daily treatments of propranolol. 38. If a patient were exhibiting pupilary constriction, hypersalivation, bronchial wheezing, and Bradycardia. Which division of the ANS should you suspect is affected? a. Blockade of the cholinergic nervous system b. Stimulation of the sympathetic nervous system c. Stimulation of the parasympathetic nervous system d. Blockade of the voluntary nervous system 39. Which of the following is NOT a side effect of oral contraceptives? a. Hypertenstion b. Early onset osteoporosis c. Unintended pregnancy d. Thromboembolism 40. Drugs with high abuse potential and no accepted medical benefits are classified as schedule a. 2 b. 1 c. 3 d. 4 41. You are carring for a 48 year old patient with acute onset pulmonary edema secondary to an acute MI. He has crackles in both lung fields and wheezes in the bronchial regions. His blood pressure is 160/90, his pulse is 112, and his respirations are 32. Which of the following meds is indicated first and why? a. NTG to vasodilate the coronary vessels to maximize myocardial oxygen supply b. Morphine sulfate to decrease anxiety and reduce Afterload c. Lasix to achieve a diuresis and remove a portion of fluids from the intravascular space. d. NTG to reduce preload and Afterload to redistribute fluids to the periphery. e. Morphine sulfate to remove fluids from the intracellular space. 42. One important reason meds are given via IV is such drugs a. Do not affect the kidneys b. Can be more easily reversed if an untoward affect occurs c. Bypass the liver initially d. Have a delayed onset of action compared to the oral route 43. All of the following result from elevated insulin levels in the blood EXCEPT. a. Gluconeogenesis and glycogenolysis b. Conversion of glucose to glycogen from storage in the liver and skeletal muscle c. Increased cellular transport of glucose, potassium, and amino acids d. Promotion of cell growth and division e. Promotes proteins, carbohydrates, lipid, and nucleic acid synthesis. 44. Which of the following is most likely to affect elimination of a medication a. Burns on more than 30% of your body b. Renal disease c. Metabolic alkalosis d. Hemorrhage 45. If a newly developed drug is undergoing a double blind study in a large pt population, it is most likely in phase of human studies. a. Phase 4 b. Phase 2 c. Phase 1 d. Phase 3 46. At the cellular level, the treatment of seizures is generally accomplished by: a. Inhibiting the influx of sodium and calcium ions into the neural cells b. Enhancing the influx of potassium ions into the neural cells c. Enchancing the influx of sodium and calcium ions into the nerual cells d. Inhibiting the influx of potassium ions into the neural cells 47. A prolonged deficiency of vitamin C may result in: a. Kwashoirkor b. Pemidous anemia c. Scurvy d. Increased bleeding 48. The narcotic nalbuphine (Nubain) not only binds to opiate receptor sites to provide analgesia, it prevents other opiods, such as morphine sulfate, from binding to these sites, lessening repiratory depression. These characterisistics make the drug an: a. Agonist b. Competitive agonist c. Competitive antagonist d. Agonist antagonist 49. Pts experiencing the onset of signs and symptoms indicative of myocardial ischemia are sometimes encouraged to chew ASA. ASA is beneficial because it: a. Inhibits the clotting cascade, thereby preventing thrombus formation b. Decreases the formation of platelet plugs and potential thrombi c. Reduces the pain of an AMI through its analgestic actions d. Blocks the converstion of fibrinogen to fribrin 50. The study of the basic processes that determine the duration and intensity of a drug’s effect and how those drugs are absorbed, distributed, biotransformed, and elimated is called: a. Polypharmacy b. Phamacodyamics c. Drug profiling d. Pharmacokinetics