pre hospital trauma life support-guide 2012 latest updated

pre hospital trauma life support-guide 2012 latest updated Which of the following best defines shock? A. Inadequate energy production at the cellular level B. Aerobic metabolism at the cellular level C. Low blood pressure D. Any condition that causes generalized cellular hyperperfusion - correct answer A. Prehospital providers are treating an unconscious patient with irregular respirations who was ejected from a motor vehicle. No obvious external injuries are noted during the initial assessment. Vital signs are P 54 breaths per minute, SpO₂ 94%, and BP 182/112 mm Hg. These findings are most consistent with which of the following injuries? A. Closed head injury B. Intra-abdominal hemorrhage C. Spinal cord injury D. Cardiac tamponade - correct answer A. What is the most common type of shock experienced by trauma patients? A. Obstructive B. Distributive C. Hypovolemic D. Cardiogenic - correct answer C. A full-term pregnant patient is being spinally immobilized after a motor vehicle collision. After placing her in the ambulance, vital signs reveal a blood pressure of 88/64 mm Hg. What is the most appropriate next step? A. Remove the spine immobilization and allow the patient to assume a position of comfort. B. Administer a fluid bolus of 500 mL Ringer's lactate. C. Immobilize the patient on the backboard and tilt the backboard to the left side. D. Immobilize the patient on the backboard and tilt the backboard to the right side. - correct answer c. Which of the following organs is the most sensitive to hypoxia? A. GI tract B. Liver C. Brain D. Kidney - correct answer C. A 33-year-old male was involved in a house fire and the primary survey reveals stridor, bradypnea, and soot around the nose/mouth. Multiple attempts at airway management have been unsuccessful. Which destination is most appropriate for this patient? A. Level-one trauma center (40 min away) B. Level-two trauma center (20 min away) C. Burn facility (50 min away) D. Community hospital (10 min away) - correct answer D. When ventilating the average adult patient, how much air should be delivered into the lungs during each ventilation? A. 250 mL B. 500 mL C. 750 mL D. 1000 mL - correct answer B. Prehospital providers respond to a male patient lying supine on the ground with a single gunshot wound to the left temple. The patient is apneic and pulseless. What is the most appropriate action? A. Initiate positive-pressure ventilation. B. Declare the patient dead. C. Begin chest compressions. D. Immobilize the spine. - correct answer B. After being tackled, a football player has lost sensation from the umbilicus down. What area of the spine should prehospital providers suspect is injured? A. C5 B. C7 C. T10 D. T12 - correct answer C. What is the most common cause of an airway obstruction in the unconscious trauma patient? A. Blood B. Vomitus C. Teeth D. Tongue - correct answer D. In which situation should the prehospital provider consider terminating cardiopulmonary resuscitation? A. Traumatic arrest with transport time of 5 minutes B. Traumatic arrest with a transport time of 10 minutes C. Witnessed arrest with 10 minutes of unsuccessful resuscitative efforts D. Witnessed arrest with 15 minutes of unsuccessful resuscitative efforts - correct answer D. During the physical examination of a trauma patient, the prehospital provider pushes down on the sides of the pelvis and discovers crepitus. How should the prehospital provider proceed? A. Immediately stop any further pelvic assessment. B. Assess for pelvis pain with lateral compression. C. Repeat the exam to confirm findings. D. Determine the most painful region. - correct answer A. Prehospital providers respond to a 30-year-old male who fell through a sliding glass door. The patient has suffered multiple lacerations to the upper extremities that are bleeding heavily. He is restless, diaphoretic, and with a weak, thready pulse. What is the most appropriate intervention? A. IV access B. A tourniquet C. Direct pressure D. Hemostatic agent - correct answer C. A patient with unexplainable signs of shock is likely experiencing hemorrhage from which of the following? A. Intra-abdominal injury B. Pelvic fracture C. Head injury D. Femur fracture - correct answer B. Upon arrival to a motor vehicle collision, prehospital providers locate a male patient lying on the ground with an obvious left femur fracture. Which of the following is the most appropriate first step? A. Immobilize the affected extremity. B. Initiate cervical spine precautions. C. Provide pain management. D. Assess the extremity for pulse, motor, and sensory function. - correct answer B. A tension pneumothorax is differentiated from a simple pneumothorax by which sign? A. Tympanitic percussion note B. Shortness of breath C. Decreased lung sounds D. Hemodynamic compromise/hypotension - correct answer D. Which assessment technique should be performed during the primary survey? A. Cranial nerve exam B. Oxygen saturation percentage C. Exposure of the patient D. Blood pressure measurement - correct answer C. What is the best method for confirming proper placement of an endotracheal tube in a patient that has a palpable pulse? A. End-tidal CO₂ monitoring B. Esophageal detection device C. Auscultation of the lungs D. Pulse oximetry - correct answer A. Prehospital providers are on scene with a 32-year-old male with a gunshot wound just above his left nipple. The patient is anxious, tachypneic, and has a weak, thready pulse. Lung sounds are absent on the injured side. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate? A. Endotracheal intubation B. Application of occlusive dressing C. Positive-pressure ventilation D. Needle decompression of injured side - correct answer D. Prehospital providers have placed an occlusive dressing over a sucking chest wound. During transport to the hospital, respiratory distress, increased respirations, and absent lung sounds are noted. What is the most appropriate intervention? A. Perform needle decompression. B. Perform endotracheal intubation. C. Provide positive-pressure ventilation. D. Remove the occlusive dressing. - correct answer D.