REVISION SCIENCE TO EXCEL IN A-LEVEL PHYSICS A-levelPHYSICS7408/3BC

1. Current is measured by: A. volts B. calories C. amps D. watts E. ohms 2. A volt is a measure of A. energy per electron B. number of electrons per second C. force on the electron D. density of electrons 3. Magnetism comes from A. magnetic monopoles B. moving quanta of light C. quantization of charge D. moving electric charge 4. In a permanent magnet, the magnetism comes from: A. the spin of the electrons B. the motion of the protons C. the high voltage inside the atom D. the electron avalanche 5. Magnetic monopoles A. are found at the ends of magnets B. are produced by cosmic rays C. are found in the Earth's core D. have never been found 6. Rail guns push the projectile using A. high-energy explosives B. electric fields C. magnetic fields D. protons 7. Telsa wanted to use a transformer to distribute elec- tricity because C. amps A. energy per elec- tron D. moving electric charge A. the spin of the electrons D. have never been found C. magnetic fields C. it decreased the current going A. it allowed there to be a power plant in every neigh- borhood. B. it made high voltage less dangerous C. it decreased the current going through long wires to reduce the loss of electricity. D. it was given strong support by Thomas Edison, who popularized it 8. You can demagnetize a natural magnet A. by placing it on a TV or computer screen B. by placing it in a very strong electric field C. by heating it above the Curie point D. none of the above 9. Which of the following use or consist of permanent magnets? (Choose all that apply.) A. lodestones B. transformers C. compasses D. earphones 10. What discovery now allows for headphones to be small and light? A. dynamos B. rare-earth magnets, such as samarium cobalt C. transformers D. maraging steel 11. Theoretically, the Earth should not have a permanent magnet in its core because A. its interior is too hot B. the Earth spins C. there is not enough iron D. magnets do not occur naturally 12. The Earth's magnetism comes from A. a dynamo in the core B. permanent magnets in the core C. iron in the crust through long wires to reduce the loss of electricity. C. by heating it above the Curie point A. lodestones C. compasses D. earphones B. rare-earth mag- nets, such as samarium cobalt A. its interior is too hot A. a dynamo in the core D. monopoles near (but not at) the north and south geographic poles 13. The Earth flips its magnetism, on average, approxi- mately A. once every 11 years B. twice every million years C. once every billion years D. never (at least not yet) 14. The north geographic pole of the Earth A. is a south magnetic pole B. has always had the same polarity C. is exactly at the magnetic pole D. none of the above 15. Compasses point north because A. the North Star attracts them B. the Earth has an electric charge C. there are electric currents in the iron core of the Earth D. there are magnetic monopoles near the North Pole 16. Electricity will heat a wire if it has A. high voltage B. high current C. high frequency D. DC rather than AC 17. Static electricity occurs when two surfaces rub against each other and A. protons flow from one to another B. electrons flow from one to another C. positrons flow from one to another D. neutrons flow from one to another 18. Europe uses higher voltage in homes because it A. creates less heat in home wiring B. carries greater power B. twice every mil- lion years A. is a south mag- netic pole C. there are elec- tric currents in the iron core of the Earth B. high current B. electrons flow from one to anoth- er A. creates less heat in home wiring C. is less dangerous D. works better for DC (used in Europe instead of AC) 19. Lights and TVs in Europe tend to flicker because Europe uses A. 220 volts—the United States uses 110 volts B. 110 volts—the United States uses 220 volts C. 50 Hertz—the United States uses 60 Hertz D. 60 Hertz—the United States uses 50 Hertz 20. When an object loses some electrons, it A. has a negative charge B. has a positive charge C. has a low resistance D. glows (e.g., lightbulb wire) 21. To get a spark, you normally need: A. high voltage B. high current C. low resistance D. alternating current 22. A fuse is used in a house to prevent A. large power surges B. house wires from overheating C. illegal use of electricity D. too much voltage entering the house E. too much energy usage 23. The Earth's magnetic flips are used for A. creating new permanent magnets B. proving that the Earth has a solid iron core C. generating useful power D. geologic dating 24. In a metal, electrons A. are confined to a single atom B. always point in the same direction C. can move freely D. do not exist C. 50 Hertz—the United States uses 60 Hertz B. has a positive charge A. high voltage B. house wires from overheating D. geologic dating C. can move freely 25. The aspect of electricity that would make it most dangerous is high A. voltage B. current C. frequency D. power 26. A certain kind of generator uses its own electricity to strengthen its magnetic field. Such a generator is called a A. superconductor B. transformer C. samarium D. dynamo 27. The original superconductors were cooled with A. liquid nitrogen B. liquid helium C. freon refrigerators D. hydrogen gas 28. Room-temperature superconductors A. are used in advanced computers B. are used to carry electric power C. are used for strong magnets D. have no practical applications 29. High-temperature superconductors operate at ap- proximately: A. room temperature B. 4 K (liquid helium temperature) C. -123 C (liquid nitrogen temperature) D. 2000 C 30. We use AC instead of DC because A. 110 volts AC is less dangerous than 110 volts DC B. AC is cheaper than DC C. AC can use transformers D. DC can use transformers B. current D. dynamo B. liquid helium D. have no practi- cal applications C. -123 C (liquid nitrogen tempera- ture) C. AC can use transformers 31. Topsy was executed with AC A. to show the dangers of high voltage B. because DC would not have worked C. because it was the only way to get high current D. AC delivers more power than DC 32. Edison wanted A. a power plant on every city block B. high-voltage DC C. alternating current D. to abolish the electric chair 33. The current through a flashlight bulb is A. about 110 amps B. about 1.6 × 10-19 amp C. about one amp D. about 15 amps 34. A stereo speaker produces sound by the force A. of a magnetic field on electric current B. of an electric field on an electric charge C. of a magnetic field on an electric charge D. of an electric field on a magnetic charge 35. The light from an ordinary lightbulb comes from the fact that A. the wire contains phosphor B. the wire is heated by electricity C. the high voltage causes small sparks D. electricity is a wave 36. A Tesla coil is a kind of A. transformer B. dynamo C. radio transmitter D. sensor for the Curie point 37. Submarines can be detected by their A. magnetism A. to show the dangers of high voltage A. a power plant on every city block C. about one amp C. of a magnetic field on an electric charge B. the wire is heat- ed by electricity A. transformer A. magnetism B. electric charge C. backscattered x-rays D. MRI signal 38. At the Curie temperature A. molecular movement stops B. fusion takes place in the sun C. magnetism disappears D. fission takes place in a bomb 39. Most electric power is generated by A. static electricity B. a wire moving through a magnetic field C. moving a wire in a strong electric field D. chemical means (batteries or fuel cells) 40. What invention made it possible to change low volt- age AC to high voltage AC? A. Van de Graaff generator B. samarium-cobalt magnets C. transformer D. inverter 41. To reduce losses from resistance, electric power lines use A. very high current B. very high voltage C. very high power D. very low voltage 42. An example of a transformer is A. a rail gun B. a dynamo C. a Tesla coil D. a Van de Graaff generator 43. Better motors and earphones have recently been made possible by A. stronger magnets B. wires with less resistance C. magnetism dis- appears B. a wire moving through a magnet- ic field C. transformer B. very high volt- age C. a Tesla coil A. stronger mag- nets C. higher voltage batteries D. using light rather than electricity 44. Beats measure A. frequency B. the difference between two frequencies C. loudness D. the presence of noise 45. The fastest earthquake wave is the A. L wave B. S wave C. P wave D. They all travel at the same speed. 46. Waves tend to bend in to the side A. with slower wave velocity B. with higher wave velocity C. that is upward D. that is downward 47. The slowest earthquake wave is the A. L wave B. P wave C. S wave D. They all travel at the same speed. 48. An octave refers to two frequencies that differ by a factor of A. 1.5 B. 2 C. 8 D. sqrt(2) 49. When two different waves pass through an opening of the same size, which one will spread more? A. smaller wavelength B. larger wavelength C. higher frequency D. lower frequency B. the difference between two fre- quencies C. P wave A. with slower wave velocity B. L wave B. 2 B. larger wave- length 50. The fastest sound wave is: A. low frequency B. middle frequency (voice) C. high frequency D. They all travel at the same speed. 51. You can measure the distance to the epicenter by measuring A. the amplitude of the P wave B. the amplitude of the S wave C. the frequency of the L wave D. the time between the P and S waves 52. Sound travels fastest in A. air B. water C. rock D. vacuum 53. When an opening gets smaller, a wave that passes through it A. spreads more B. spreads less C. stays the same D. changes its wavelength 54. The very center of the Earth is A. pure rock B. liquid rock C. liquid iron D. solid iron 55. Which kind of earthquake wave is purely longitudi- nal? A. L wave B. P wave C. S wave D. They are all longitudinal. D. They all travel at the same speed. D. the time be- tween the P and S waves C. rock A. spreads more D. solid iron B. P wave 56. Which of the following statements about earthquakes is true? A. S waves are fastest and cause the most destruc- tion. B. P waves are fastest, and L waves cause the most destruction. C. L waves are slowest, and P waves cause the most destruction. D. P waves are fastest and cause the most destruc- tion. 57. The L wave is often the most damaging because B. P waves are fastest, and L waves cause the most destruction A. it stays on A. it stays on the surface, so it doesn't spread out very the surface, so it much B. it moves slowest, so it has the greatest energy per mile C. the S and P waves carry too little total energy D. it arrives first, before people have a chance to take cover 58. An earthquake wave does its worst damage when it reaches an area that A. slows it down B. increases its frequency C. decreases its frequency D. adds additional energy 59. Landfill is dangerous because A. the frequency of an earthquake increases B. the wavelength of an earthquake increases C. they tend to focus earthquake energy D. the amplitude of the earthquake increases 60. When there is an atmospheric inversion, sound tends to A. become focused B. bend upward C. bend downward D. become absorbed doesn't spread out very much A. slows it down D. the amplitude of the earthquake in- creases C. bend downward 61. The ocean sound channel A. is very quiet B. is very noisy C. is radioactive D. focuses earthquakes 62. Sound tends to bend toward the side with A. colder air B. warmer air C. denser air D. less dense air 63. The same note is played on two pianos. Beats are heard once per second. From this, we deduce that A. at least one of the pianos is out of tune (the notes are at the wrong frequency) B. both pianos are out of tune C. the pianos have been accurately tuned D. the pianos will sound especially pleasant if played together 64. We know that the inner part of the Earth is liquid because A. no S waves move across it B. we can detect the flow of material from the emitted sound C. at such great pressures, everything becomes liq- uid D. neutrinos pass through it and show the pattern 65. A magnitude 9 earthquake, compared to a magnitude 8 earthquake A. has twice the energy B. has 10 to 30 times the energy C. has velocity 2x faster D. has velocity 10 to 30x faster 66. You feel the tremors of an earthquake. Ten seconds later, you feel another shaking. The distance to the epicenter is about A. is very quiet A. colder air A. at least one of the pianos is out of tune (the notes are at the wrong frequency) A. no S waves move across it B. has 10 to 30 times the energy D. 50 miles A. 2 miles B. 5 miles C. 10 miles D. 50 miles 67. If we double the frequency of sound, the wavelength is A. doubled B. halved C. unchanged D. quadrupled 68. Beats demonstrate that A. sound is a wave B. sounds bends C. sound bounces D. sound spreads 69. The velocity of sound is approximately A. 1000 feet per second B. 1 mile per second C. 5 miles per second D. 186,282 miles per second 70. The speed of sound in air A. is always the same B. increases if you shout louder C. depends on frequency D. increases as air temperature increases 71. Sound waves are A. transverse B. compressional (longitudinal) C. a combination of transverse and compressional D. rotational B. halved A. sound is a wave A. 1000 feet per second D. increases as air temperature in- creases B. compressional (longitudinal) 72. On a typical day, sound emitted near the ground tends A. upward, toward to bend A. upward, toward the sky the sky B. downward, toward the ground C. not at all; it goes straight 73. You are more likely to hear distant sounds when A. the air near the ground is warm and the air above D. the air near the ground is cool and it is cool the air above it is B. the air near the ground is cool and the air above it warm is also cool C. the air near the ground is warm and the air above it is cool D. the air near the ground is cool and the air above it is warm 74. Because of evaporation, the air above the surface of B. bend downward a lake becomes cool. Sound in the air above the lake toward the surface will tend to A. bend upward away from the surface B. bend downward toward the surface C. go in a straight line parallel to the surface D. go alternatively up and down 75. To have a sound channel, there must be D. an increase of A. a minimum in the velocity of sound the velocity with B. a maximum in the velocity of sound depth C. a decrease of the velocity with depth D. an increase of the velocity with depth 76. SOFAR took advantage of A. the sound chan- A. the sound channel in the ocean nel in the ocean B. the sound channel in the atmosphere C. the magnetic field of the Earth D. the uncertainty principle 77. Water waves are C. both transverse A. pure transverse waves and longitudinal B. pure longitudinal waves C. both transverse and longitudinal D. compressional 78. The sound channel in the ocean carries sound a long D. the sound The ozone layer is created by A. carbon dioxide B. lightning C. sunlight D. chlorofluorocarbons 84. SOSUS refers to A. a method of rescuing pilots designed during World War II B. a project to detect nuclear explosions C. a system for detecting submarines D. a system using many artificial Earth satellites 85. Which of the following statements was true about Project Mogul? A. It was concerned with the atmosphere. B. It resulted in the first nuclear bomb. C. It led to the discovery of nuclear fission. D. It involved the invention of integrated circuits. 86. According to this text, the flying disks that crashed near Roswell were A. advanced U.S. space vehicles B. alien flying saucers C. microphones D. U-2 airplanes 87. Very long wavelength water waves A. travel slower than short ones B. travel faster than short ones C. travel the same speed as short ones D. travel faster if they have high amplitude and slower if they have low amplitude 88. Whales and fiber optics both make use of what prin- ciple? A. Huygens B. Heisenberg C. Moore D. Curie C. a system for detecting sub- marines A. It was con- cerned with the at- mosphere. C. microphones B. travel faster than short ones A. Huygens 89. When an earthquake at sea starts a tsunami or tidal wave, the initial height is relatively small. What ac- counts for the towering wave that breaks near the shore? A. The wave builds up energy as it moves. B. The wavelength increases. C. The depth increases. D. The wave moves faster. E. The wave moves slower. F. Its appetite for destruction is whetted. 90. A water wave has a wavelength of 10 meters and a frequency of 2 cycles/sec. Its velocity is A. 5 meters per second B. 10 meters per second C. 20 meters per second D. 50 meters per second 91. The sound from a passing car sounds like a high pitch, but as it passes, it gets lower. That's an example of A. the Huygens principle B. wave cancellation C. the Ewing principle D. the Doppler shift 92. Thunderclouds tend to rise until A. they rain out all their water B. they reach air that is colder than they are C. they hit the carbon-dioxide layer D. they reach air that is warmer than they are 93. The atmospheric sound channel is created because of A. carbon dioxide B. conduction C. convection D. ultraviolet light E. The wave moves slower C. 20 meters per second D. the Doppler shift D. they reach air that is warmer than they are D. ultraviolet light 94. In the daytime, sound tends to A. bend upward B. bend downward C. go straight D. create a mirage A. bend upward 95. Most damage from an earthquake usually comes from C. L wave the A. S wave B. P wave C. L wave D. M wave 96. For sound waves, low-frequency waves travel A. faster than high frequency B. slower than high frequency C. the same speed as high frequency D. The speed depends on the amplitude of the wave, not on the frequency. 97. The piano note A above middle C is 440 Hz. The next higher A has a frequency A. 660 B. 880 C. 550 D. 1320 98. The colors of an oil slick indicate that A. light is a wave B. light bends when entering material C. light changes its wavelength when passing through oil D. oil is made of many different chemicals with differ- ent colors 99. An indication that light is a wave is (choose all that are appropriate) A. that it has dark bands in the diffraction pattern B. that it passes through glass C. the same speed as high frequency B. 880 A. light is a wave A. that it has dark bands in the dif- fraction pattern C. that it reflects off surfaces D. its high speed 100. The index of refraction measures A. the frequency of light B. the speed of light C. the period of light D. density of the glass 101. Light waves are A. longitudinal B. transverse C. circular 102. The resolution of a human eye is about A. 4 mm B. 2 cm C. 1 micron D. 1/60 degree 103. Which of the following has the lowest index of refrac- tion? A. water B. glass C. air D. crystal 104. As the wavelength of light decreases, the frequency A. decreases B. increases C. stays the same B. the speed of light B. transverse D. 1/60 degree C. air B. increases 105. In one millionth of a second, light will travel (caution: B. about 1000 feet possibly a trick question) A. about 1 foot B. about 1000 feet C. from one side of a computer chip to the other D. from the Earth to the Moon 106. 106. A piece of glass is shaped like a pyramid. The side of the pyramid is tilted at 45 degrees with respect to the horizontal. A beam of light is inside the glass, moving horizontally. When it emerges from the tilted surface of the glass, it will be moving A. perfectly horizontally B. in a direction that is tilted upward (so it will even- tually go into space) C. in a direction that is tilted downward (so it will eventually hit the ground) 107. A stop sign is bright when you shine the headlamps of your car on it. It most likely is covered with A. fluorescent paint B. phosphorescent paint C. tritium D. small glass spheres 108. Diamonds sparkle in many colors because A. light travels very slowly B. light travels very fast C. there is color-dependent absorption D. light velocity depends on color 109. Which of the following are retroreflectors? Choose all that apply. A. bicycle reflectors B. human eyes C. stop signs D. animal eyes 110. Two soap bubbles from the same soap appear to be different colors. They probably have A. different sizes B. different absorption C. different temperature D. different thickness 111. If c is the speed of light in vacuum, then the speed of light in glass is approximately C. in a direction that is tilted down- ward (so it will eventually hit the ground) D. small glass spheres D. light velocity de- pends on color A. bicycle reflec- tors B. human eyes C. stop signs D. animal eyes D. different thick- ness B. (2/3) c A. 1.5 c B. (2/3) c C. c D. 0.999 c 112. Stealth bombers are undetected by radar, in part be- cause A. of their low heat emission B. of their high speed C. they are made of translucent materials D. of the absence of corner reflectors 113. Rainbows show different colors because A. droplets of water have different sizes B. in water, different frequencies have different veloc- ities C. the direction of light "spreads" because the wave- length is short D. droplets of water change the color of air molecules 114. Which of the following is polarized? A. blue sky light B. direct sunlight (yellow) C. light from a candle D. light from a TV screen 115. A fiber can send much more information per second than a wire because A. light has a very high frequency B. electricity travels better in glass than in a wire C. sound travels very rapidly in glass D. light travels faster than electricity 116. Which color of light would give the highest number of bits per second in fiber optics? A. red B. white C. blue D. infrared D. of the absence of corner reflec- tors B. in water, dif- ferent frequencies have different ve- locities D. light from a TV screen A. light has a very high frequency C. blue 117. Shannon is famous for having invented or discovered (among other things): A. GPS B. Global Hawk C. the sound channel D. the bit 118. The human eye has cones that detect A. red, yellow, blue B. cyan, magenta, yellow C. yellow, green, red D. green, blue, red 119. People squint to see better because squinting A. reduces the light B. bends the lens to make it stronger C. reduces the blur size D. They don't see better. They only think that they do. 120. Old people need reading glasses because their A. pupils can't contract as well B. eyes become less sensitive to visible light C. lenses become less flexible D. they forget how to read 121. Red-eye in photographs comes from A. the film detecting IR B. poor focus on the eye C. light of the flash reflecting off the retina (the back of the eye) D. light of the flash reflecting off the cornea (the surface of the eye) 122. Red-eye demonstrates that A. light is a wave B. air absorbs blue more than red C. camera film is sensitive to red D. the eye is a retroreflector D. the bit D. green, blue, red C. reduces the blur size C. lenses become less flexible C. light of the flash reflecting off the retina (the back of the eye) D. the eye is a retroreflector 123. 123. Your eye has A. one lens, called the lens B. two lenses—the lens and the cornea C. two lenses—the lens and the retina D. no lenses, but behaves like a pinhole camera 124. Light is polarized when it bounces off (choose all that are correct) A. water B. glass C. air 125. Sunglasses can help you see a fish underwater be- cause A. reflected light is polarized B. light from the fish is polarized C. they dim the light, making your pupils dilate D. they cut the blue light of the water surface 126. Polaroids are used for 3-D movies because A. they reduce glare from the surface B. they give a different image to each eye C. they polarize the light D. they reduce the dispersion 127. Stress in plastic can be detected by looking at A. the transmission of different colors B. the reflection of different colors C. interference D. polarized light (crossed polaroid's) 128. In the pinhole camera, more blurring occurs if A. the hole is made very large (but not if it is very small) B. the hole is made very small (but not if it is made very large) C. the hole is either very large or very small D. Never, since there is no lens in a pinhole camera. B. two lenses—the lens and the cornea A. water B. glass C. air A. reflected light is polarized B. they give a different image to each eye D. polarized light (crossed po- laroid's) A. the hole is made very large (but not if it is very small) 129. C. is a wave Holograms depend on the fact that light A. contains red, green, and blue B. is quantized C. is a wave D. can be focused 130. A successful fisherman will throw the spear A. above the fish image B. below the fish image C. right at the fish image D. It depends on how close the fish is. 131. To make a spy satellite that can read a license plate, you would have to A. put it in a higher orbit B. cover it with a polarizing filter C. use a larger mirror D. Do nothing; they already can read license plates. 132. The wavelength of visible light is closest to the diam- eter of A. a human hair B. a red blood cell C. an atom D. a nucleus 133. The Keck telescope is "powerful" because A. it gives larger magnification B. it can use UV light C. it has a bigger mirror to collect light D. it has a bigger focal length than others 134. When we say a man is color blind, we usually mean that A. everything looks black and white (or gray) B. unlike others, he can't see ultraviolet or infrared C. he can sense only three colors D. he can't distinguish red from green B. below the fish image C. use a larger mir- ror B. a red blood cell C. it has a big- ger mirror to col- lect light D. he can't dis- tinguish red from green 135. C. a mirror The Keck uses what to focus light? A. computers B. a lens C. a mirror D. It doesn't focus light. 136. Light in a vacuum goes 1 foot every nanosecond (billionth of a second). In water, in one nanosecond it will go about A. 1 foot B. 1.5 feet C. 0.66 foot D. 0 feet (light doesn't travel through water) 137. Present-day 3-D movies make use of which technol- ogy? A. polarizers B. holograms C. dispersion D. mirages 138. A computer screen does not have spots that are col- ored A. red B. green C. blue D. white 139. For a good telescope (like Hubble) in geosynchro- nous orbit (HEO), a typical resolution (for objects on the surface) is about A. 4 inches B. 3 feet (about 1 meter) C. 20 feet D. 300 feet 140. A major use of fiber optics is for A. communication B. making flashlights brighter C. 0.66 foot A. polarizers D. white C. 20 A. communication C. focusing light for lasers D. traffic lights 141. Which of the following has the highest frequency? A. gamma rays B. UV C. IR D. microwaves 142. Which of the following has the lowest frequency? A. TV B. AM radio C. visible light D. gamma rays 143. If you double the absolute temperature of an object, the wavelength of the emitted light A. gets longer by a factor of 2 B. gets longer by a factor of 16 C. gets shorter by a factor of 2 D. gets shorter by a factor of 16 144. Which kind of light has the longest wavelength? A. red light B. blue light C. infrared light D. ultraviolet light 145. Invisible light includes A. UV, quarks, and gluons B. x-rays, UV, and IR C. blue, ultrablue, and ultrared D. quanta, antiwhite, and photons 146. As an object gets hotter and hotter, the color of its glow will change from A. white, to yellow, to red, to blue B. blue, to white, to yellow, to red C. red, to yellow, to white, to blue A. gamma rays B. AM radio C. gets shorter by a factor of 2 C. infrared light B. x-rays, UV, and IR C. red, to yellow, to white, to blue D. yellow, to white, to blue, to red E. none of the above 147. Radio waves and x-rays have the A. same frequency B. same speed C. same wave length D. same energy E. none of the above 148. If you double the absolute temperature, the total radi- ation A. is reduced to half B. doubles C. increases by 4 D. increases by 16 149. Most of the energy of an ordinary tungsten-filament lightbulb is emitted in the color A. ultraviolet B. green C. red D. infrared 150. Heat radiation is also called A. IR B. UV C. white light D. gamma rays 151. A tungsten lightbulb has 100 watts printed on it. About much power is actually emitted as visible light? A. 16 watts B. 40 watts C. 100 watts D. 220 watts 152. Which color star would be the hottest? A. blue B. same speed D. increases by 16 D. infrared A. IR A. 16 watts A. blue B. red C. orange D. white 153. Sunlight is brightest in which color? A. UV B. red C. green D. blue E. IR 154. Because of their warmth, humans emit primarily A. sonic radiation B. infrared radiation C. ultraviolet radiation D. visible radiation 155. Which of the following exposes a person to the kind of radiation that can cause cancer? (Choose all that apply.) A. computer-aided tomography (CAT) scans B. magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) C. positron-emission tomography (PET) D. thermography 156. If you sleep under a tree, you won't get wet from morning dew. That's because the tree A. absorbs starlight B. keeps air from rising C. emits infrared radiation D. blocks the clouds 157. Dew forms when the ground cools A. by emitting UV B. by emitting IR C. by emitting visible light D. by conduction downward 158. A "heat-seeking" missile actually aims itself toward A. infrared light C. green B. infrared radia- tion A. computer-aided tomography (CAT) scans C. emits infrared radiation B. by emitting IR A. infrared light B. ultraviolet light C. visible light D. radio waves 159. The ozone layer is created by and absorbs: A. CFCs (chlorofluorocarbons) B. carbon dioxide from fossil fuels C. cosmic rays D. ultraviolet radiation 160. Ozone depletion is caused by (choose all that are correct) A. CFCs B. carbon dioxide C. fossil fuels D. cosmic rays 161. A few years ago, a certain kind of spray can was banned. These were the cans that used A. chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) B. carbon dioxide C. ozone D. They were never banned. 162. Multispectral refers to A. UV, IR, and visible B. the many colors in visible light C. UV, IR, and x-rays D. "whiter than white" 163. The name NMR has been changed to A. CAT B. MRI C. ultrasound D. PET 164. Which of the following statements about the ozone layer is not true? A. The location of the ozone layer is the tropopause. B. The ozone layer causes thunderstorms to spread ultraviolet radia- tion A. CFCs A. chlorofluorocar- bons (CFCs) B. the many colors in visible light B. MRI D. Ozone is the most important greenhouse gas. laterally. C. Ozone is destroyed by chlorine (e.g., from Freon and other CFCs). D. Ozone is the most important greenhouse gas. 165. The clouds in thunderstorms rise until they reach A. the carbon dioxide layer B. the CFC layer C. the top of the atmosphere D. the ozone layer 166. The original name for the microwave oven was A. convection oven B. radar range C. radio oven D. microwave 167. Microwave ovens use radiation with a wavelength A. about one micron B. same as radar C. same as lasers D. same as AM or FM radios 168. The microwaves in a microwave oven mostly heat A. carbon B. air C. water D. oxygen 169. MRI maps the distribution of which element to pro- duce an image? A. iodine B. carbon C. calcium D. hydrogen 170. UV light (choose all that are correct) A. is responsible for sunburns and windburns B. is used to kill bacteria in the water of remote vil- lages in India D. the ozone layer B. radar range B. same as radar B. water D. hydrogen A. is responsible for sunburns and windburns B. is used to kill C. is also called black light D. is also called heat radiation 171. Which of the following is best for seeing the calcium in bones? A. x-ray B. MRI C. PET scan D. EEG 172. A black light is designed to emit A. UV B. IR C. radio waves D. x-rays 173. A positron is A. an antielectron B. the same as an electron C. a kind of quark D. a hypothesized star 174. Sunburn is usually caused by A. UV radiation B. IR radiation C. X radiation D. gamma radiation E. visible light F. all of the above 175. Which of the following uses antimatter? A. CAT scan B. MRI C. PET scan D. x-ray bacteria in the wa- ter of remote vil- lages in India C. is also called black light A. x-ray A. UV A. an antielectron A. UV radiation C. PET scan 176. B. MRI To image the hydrogen in the body, use A. PET B. MRI C. CAT D. x-rays 177. What is the cause for "windburn"? A. cold from the wind B. friction from wind C. solar UV D. solar IR 178. Remote control of a TV is usually done using A. UV B. IR C. microwaves D. X-rays 179. Pit vipers and mosquitoes can sense A. UV radiation B. IR radiation C. Gamma rays D. Microwaves 180. Infrared radiation can (choose all that apply) A. help snakes locate prey B. create ozone C. cause cancer D. cause sunburn 181. Cancer is most likely to be caused by A. infrared radiation B. microwave radiation C. ultraviolet radiation D. white light 182. The advertising slogan "whiter than white" means that the material A. emits IR B. emits visible light C. solar UV B. IR B. IR radiation A. help snakes lo- cate prey C. ultraviolet radia- tion B. emits visible light C. absorbs IR D. emits UV 183. To make clothes appear extra clean, manufacturers apply A. infrared radiation B. electron beam C. ultraviolet radiation D. fluorescent dyes D. fluorescent dyes 184. Which of the following is a typical energy for an x-ray? C. 50,000 eV A. 1 eV B. 1000 eV C. 50,000 eV D. 1,000,000 eV 185. In total darkness, you can see people if you have a camera that is sensitive to A. ultraviolet radiation B. infrared radiation C. gamma radiation D. far ultraviolet radiation 186. Cell phones emit A. microwaves B. x-rays C. gamma rays D. P waves 187. Each of these make use of infrared radiation except A. capturing illegal immigrants B. military "night vision" C. measurement of wave velocities in the ocean D. using trees to keep morning dew off campers 188. Bats navigate in caves by using A. ultrasound B. IR C. black light D. radar B. infrared radia- tion A. microwaves C. measurement of wave velocities in the ocean A. ultrasound 189. The phosphor of a fluorescent lightbulb turns which of these into visible light? A. x-rays B. infrared light C. ultraviolet light D. alpha rays 190. "Cool roofs" A. must be white in the visible B. must reflect infrared C. must be brown in the visible D. do not absorb UV 191. The best kind of radiation to purify water is A. visible B. IR C. UV D. microwave 192. Which of the following are electromagnetic waves? Choose all that are appropriate (no partial credit). A. radar B. visible light C. UV D. x-rays 193. To image hydrogen in the brain, the best technique is A. MRI B. CAT C. PET D. x-ray 194. Which of the following is an advanced method that uses x-rays? A. MRI B. PET C. CAT D. SAR C. ultraviolet light B. must reflect in- frared C. UV A. radar C. UV D. x-rays A. MRI B. PET 195. Higher carbon dioxide levels than we have now were last seen about A. 600 years ago B. 2000 years ago C. 13,000 years ago D. 2 million years ago 196. The country that produces the most carbon dioxide each year is A. United States B. Russia C. China D. India 197. The country that produces the most carbon dioxide per person every year A. United States B. Russia C. China D. Saudi Arabia D. 2 million years ago C. China D. Saudi Arabia 198. Which fossil fuel produces the most CO2, per pound, C. coal when burned? A. oil B. natural gas C. coal D. gasoline 199. The greenhouse effect currently warms the Earth by approximately (careful: this may be a trick question) A. 1°F B. 2°F C. 4°F D. 35°F 200. Converting coal to oil is achieved with A. pebble bed reactors B. Fisher-Tropsch C. enhanced oil recovery D. CIGS D. 35°F B. Fisher-Tropsch 201. Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere has increased over the past 100 years by about A. 0.6% B. 6% C. 36% D. 96% 202. Ice in Antarctica is A. melting, as expected from global warming predic- tions B. increasing, as expected from global warming pre- dictions C. melting, contradicting global warming predictions D. increasing, contradicting global warming predic- tions 203. A treaty that was signed by the United States but not ratified by the Senate is A. IPCC B. CIGS C. SEGS D. Kyoto 204. According to the text, wind power is A. a possibility for the distant future, but not practical until the price drops B. rapidly growing, with wind turbines delivering twice the power they did four years ago C. widely used in Europe, but not suitable for the United States D. declining in the United States because the wind turbines have been discovered to kill birds 205. Clean coal A. is an oxymoron (self-contradicting word), since coal makes more CO2 than any other fossil fuel B. refers to coal that has been converted to gasoline C. refers to coal that has had its carbon removed C. 36% D. increasing, con- tradicting global warming predic- tions D. Kyoto B. rapidly grow- ing, with wind turbines delivering twice the power they did four years ago D. refers to coal used at a power plant with carbon capture and stor- age (CCS). D. refers to coal used at a power plant with carbon capture and storage (CCS). 206. In France, nuclear power produces what percentage of the electricity? A. 2% B. 20% C. 37% D. 80% 207. In the United States, nuclear power produces what percentage of the electricity? A. less than 1% B. 3% C. 20% D. 80% 208. The organization that studies climate change is A. IPCC B. NAACP C. AFL-CIO D. IAEA 209. Which of these years had the warmest worldwide climate? A. 2008 B. 2005 C. 2001 D. 1998 210. If the United States reduced CO2 emissions to those suggested by the Kyoto treaty, and the developing nations continued to increase theirs at the current (allowed) rate, then global warming would be delayed by about A. 3 years B. 10 years C. 30 years D. 70 years D. 80% C. 20% IPCC D. 1998 A. 3 years 211. The greenhouse effect involves atmospheric emis- sion of A. IR B. visible light C. UV D. microwaves 212. To be affordable without subsidy or carbon credits, the cost of a billion-watt solar plant must be not much more than A. $100 million B. $1 billion C. $30 billion D. $10 billion 213. The average temperature of the Earth (including the poles and the equator) is now about A. 42°F B. 57°F C. 65°F D. 80°F 214. Which country produces the most greenhouse gas emission per GDP (gross domestic product)? A. China B. Russia C. USA D. Japan 215. A key feature of the Kyoto treaty is that it A. required CO2 reductions for China B. did not require reductions for Japan C. reduced CO2 but ignored other greenhouse gases such as methane D. set up a method to trade carbon credits 216. Cooling in the last big ice age, which ended about 12,000 BC, was approximately A. 2°F B. 4°F A. IR B. $1 billion B. 57°F A. China D. set up a method to trade carbon credits C. 11°F C. 11°F D. 32°F 217. Cooling during the Little Ice Age (AD 1350 to 1850) was approximately A. 2°F B. 4°F C. 11°F D. 32°F 218. Which of the following is not a major greenhouse gas? A. water vapor B. carbon dioxide C. methane D. CFCs (such as Freon) 219. The least expensive form of carbon abatement (putting less CO2 into the atmosphere) is A. nuclear power B. solar power C. wind power D. conservation 220. Thanks to humans, the carbon dioxide in the atmos- phere has A. decreased by about 35% B. increased by about 36% C. doubled D. reduced to 50% of its previous level 221. The energy of a photon depends on A. color B. direction C. velocity D. width 222. Stimulated emission is important for A. integrated circuits B. superconductors A. 2°F D. CFCs (such as Freon) D. conservation B. increased by about 36% A. color D. lasers C. LEDs D. lasers 223. Transistors use semiconductors with different A. frequencies B. energy gaps C. densities D. wavelengths 224. Compact disk readers use A. x-rays B. lasers C. LEDs D. spectra 225. To tell hydrogen from helium, look at A. their x-ray emission B. their visible spectrum C. the photoelectric effect D. their amplification 226. Quantum computers are A. used mostly by the military B. used by Google for searches C. used in everyday laptops D. not yet very good at anything 227. The energy gap is important for (choose all that are correct) A. spectral fingerprinting B. superconductivity C. transistors D. lasers 228. Quanta are not observed from water waves because A. such waves are not quantized B. the energy of the quanta are too small C. water atoms are too small D. water atoms are too large B. energy gaps B. lasers B. their visible spectrum D. not yet very good at anything A. spectral finger- printing B. superconductiv- ity C. transistors D. lasers B. the energy of the quanta are too small 229. Xerox machines make use of A. the photoelectric effect B. Cooper pairs C. stimulated emission D. a chain reaction 230. High-temperature superconductors operate at ap- proximately A. room temperature B. 4 K (liquid He) C. 150 K (liquid nitrogen) D. 1200 C (tungsten filament) 231. Lasers are useful because (choose all that are cor- rect) A. their light is single frequency B. they can be well collimated C. they can be made intense D. they require no power 232. A laser operates on the principle of A. nuclear magnetic resonance B. fluorescence C. quantization of charge D. photon avalanche 233. A transistor is A. a form of superconductor B. a device that emits gamma radiation C. a strong absorber of radio waves D. a device that can amplify or turn AC to DC 234. The quantum chain reaction refers to A. a semiconductor B. a superconductor C. a laser D. the hydrogen spectra 235. An electron is in orbit around a proton. What is the maximum number of orbits it can be in at the same A. the photoelec- tric effect C. 150 K (liquid ni- trogen) A. their light is sin- gle frequency B. they can be well collimated C. they can be made intense D. photon avalanche D. a device that can amplify or turn AC to DC C. a laser D. any number time? A. 1 B. 2 C. 0 D. any number 236. Which of the following depend on an energy gap? (Choose all that apply.) A. semiconductors B. superconductors C. lasers D. gas spectrum analysis 237. The photoelectric effect is important for all of the following except A. digital cameras B. Xerox machines C. solar cells D. polarized sunglasses 238. Superconducting materials allow electrons to move without loss of energy because A. there are no impurities in the metal B. there is an energy gap C. cold electrons move slowly D. high pressure prevents collisions that cause resis- tance 239. Computer circuits are based on which material? A. samarium cobalt B. sodium chloride C. silicon D. strontium-90c A. semiconductors B. superconduc- tors C. lasers D. gas spectrum analysis D. polarized sun- glasses D. high pressure prevents collisions that cause resis- tance C. silicon