Trailhead Questions Appbuilder ALL SOLUTION LATEST SOLUTION 2023 EDITION AID GRADE A+

Which of the following customization is safe to create in your production org? A. Add a master-detail relationship. B. Add a dashboard. C. Delete a custom object. D. Change a field type from text to numbers. B If you deploy a workflow rule in production before testing it in a separate environment, which of the following can happen? A. Your rule could update records incorrectly. B. Your rule might not work as intended. C. Your rule could send unintended emails or create unnecessary tasks. D. All of the above. D What's the correct order for the three main stages of a good change management system? A. Test, build, and deploy. B. Deploy, test, and build. C. Deploy, build, and test. D. Build,test, and deploy. D You're working in an Unlimited Edition org where changes are made in production. Which of the following reasons makes the best case for using a sandbox? A. You can protect your data by building and testing in a separate environment. B. It's faster than coding in production. C. You can build castles. D. B and C A Which of the following isn't a benefit of using change sets? A. The target org can choose when to deploy the received change set. B. Point-and-click deployment is easier to use than the API or other tools. C. You can transfer user licenses from sandbox to production. D. A and B C What kind of sandbox is best for final staging before production? A. Developer B. Developer Pro C. Partial Copy D. Full D Which is the best way to discover how many sandboxes are available for your org? A. In your production org, search for 'Sandbox' in Setup. B. In your sandbox, search for 'Sandbox' in Setup. C. Call Salesforce Customer Support. D. Review your service agreement. A How do you create a sandbox? A. Call Salesforce Customer Support. B. From the Sandboxes page in the Setup Menu. C. Expose the Sandbox tab in Customize My Tabs. D. From the Home tab. B What do you do to ensure that sensitive data isn't copied to your Fully Copy sandbox? A. Create a sandbox data template then specify it when creating the sandbox. B. Delete all sensitive data as soon as it's in the sandbox by using a data template. C. Rely on sharing and permission rules to protect sensitive data in a sandbox. D. A and B. A Which of the following isn't a benefit of using change sets? A. Creating a change set helps you identify missing components. B. Validating a change set auto-corrects errors. C. You can use the change set more than once, saving time if you have many iterations or a large set of changes. D. You can validate your change set before deploying. B Deploying changes from sandbox to production using change sets is a four-step process. Which of the following isn't one of the steps? A. Authorize deployment connections in sandbox. B. Create an outbound change set in sandbox. C. Upload the change set from sandbox to production. D. Delete a deployed change set. D What is the benefit of validating an inbound change set before deploying? Choose the best answer. A. Receiving change sets in advance and then deploying at your convenience. B. Obtaining test results of the deployment without committing changes. C. Automatically adding missing components during validation. D. B and C. B What is the benefit of reducing test execution times in a deployment? A. Shorter deployments provide better experience with the software development lifecycle and have a reduced risk of being interrupted by service updates. B. Shorter deployments make iterative test deployments faster. C. Shorter deployments make iterative test deployments longer because they require more frequent deployments. D. Deployment times are outside of my control. Only Astro has the power to change the deployment time. A How does a quick deployment reduce deployment time to production? A. Because tests have run successfully before in a validation, tests aren't run in a quick deployment. The absence of a test run reduces deployment time. B. Quick deployment uses a new deployment engine that is more efficient than regular deployments. C. Tests aren't rerun in a quick deployment because they are resumed. D. B and C. A What is the benefit of test levels? A. Test levels reduce the time of iterative test deployments. B. Test levels reduce the time of iterative test deployments and give you the flexibility to decide how much testing to perform. C. Test levels are only useful in production but not in test environments. D. Test levels are useful only if you use the Run Specified Tests level. B Suppose you're deploying a small app that doesn't depend on components in your org. This app has one Apex test class that covers the Apex code in your app. What is the best practice for a fast production deployment? A. Run a deployment with the Run All Tests test level. It's better to always run all tests to ensure that nothing breaks in production. B. First run a validation that uses Run Specified Tests to run the test class, followed by a quick deployment. C. Run a deployment with no test level set so that the default test behavior occurs. D. Run a deployment with the Run Specified Tests level and specify the test class. B If one of your deployments is interrupted due to a Salesforce service update, what happens? A. The deployment is canceled and needs to be manually restarted. B. The deployment is restarted, and all tests need to be rerun. C. Tests in the deployment are resumed after the last executed test whose result is saved. D. Tests in the deployment are resumed from where they last stopped. Previous results aren't saved. C Which of the following isn't a component of a governance framework? A. Agile Methodology B. Design Standards C. Release Management D. Center of Excellence A How does a center of excellence improve velocity? A. Ignores user input to focus on internal goals. B. Channels all changes through IT. C. Helps everyone understand the business priorities. D. Keeps best practices on a need-to-know basis. C Which of the following is an example of a design standard that applies to Salesforce? A. Consistently using the Description field B. Enabling SAML C. Editing a page layout D. B and C A Which tool would you use for the following use case? Launch a troubleshooting wizard from a button, at the end of which a knowledge article is created if it'd be helpful to other users. A. Process Builder B. Visual Workflow C. Workflow D. Approvals B Which tool would you use for the following use case? When an opportunity has a discount of more than 40%, notify the CEO via email and request sign-off. Provide a way for the CEO to leave comments. A. Process Builder B. Visual Workflow C. Workflow D. Approvals D Which tool would you use for the following use case? When an opportunity closes, automatically close all activities related to that opportunity and create a renewal opportunity. A. Process Builder B. Visual Workflow C. Workflow D. Approvals A Visualforce is: A. A web-based suite of tools designed for administrators and developers to interact with Salesforce via the F APIs. B. A web development framework that lets you build custom user interfaces for apps that can be hosted on the F platform. C. An integrated development environment with a collection of tools to create, debug, and test applications in your Salesforce organization. D. A dynamic environment for viewing and modifying all the objects and relationships in a Salesforce organization. B You can display Visualforce pages in all of the following places, except: A. From standard buttons or links B. Within a standard page layout C. From a tab D. Within any Setup page E. In Salesforce1 D With the Developer Console, you can: A. Write and edit Apex code. B. Create and edit Visualforce pages. C. Create and edit Lightning components. D. Check debug logs. E. Do all of the above. E The Developer Console is: A. Connected to multiple orgs and is browser based. B. Connected to one org and is browser based. C. Connected to one org and has version control. D. Connected to multiple orgs but has no version control. B With the Workspace Manager, you can: A. Create workspaces to organize resources, such as Apex code, for different projects. B. Create custom objects to store data in your org. C. Switch between workspaces. D. Do all of the above. E. Both A and C E When is it a good time to create a customized search solution? A. You're developing an external knowledge base for user support. B. You're in the mood for a fun Friday night. C. The sales reps just started using the Sales Cloud in Lightning Experience. D. You want to put your company branding in the search bar. A What differentiates SOSL from SOQL? A. Syntax B. SOSL searches the search index instead of the org database. C. SOSL searches more efficiently when you don't know in which object the data resides. D. All of the above. D SOSL works with: A. REST only B. SOAP only C. REST, SOAP, and Apex D. SOQL only C What does a search for a single object look like in SOSL? A. FIND {cloud} RETURNING Account B. FIND in ACCOUNT RETURNING "cloud" C. FIND "cloud" in ACCOUNT D. FIND (cloud) RIGHT NOW! A What does a search for multiple objects look like in SOSL? A. FIND {sneakers} RETURNING ALL ARTICLES B. FIND {sneakers} in ALL OBJECTS C. FIND {sneakers} RETURNING Product2, ContentVersion, FeedItem D. FIND {sneakers} RETURNING Account C How does a custom object search differ from other queries? A. The name is in all caps. B. It includes __c at the end of the object name. C. In the query, you specify that an object is custom. D. You surround the custom object name in quotes. B How do you create efficient text searches? A. Limit what you're searching through and limit the number of results. B. Shorten the search string. C. Use SOSL and REST. D. Only search the name field of records. A Which REST resource adds auto-suggest functionality. A. Auto Suggested Records B. Search Suggested Article Title Matches C. RETURNING FieldSpec D. search() B What can admins do to influence the search results ranking? A. Host webinars for users on best search practices. B. Rename records. C. Set up synonym groups and promoted search terms. D. Nothing. You're all alone in your quest to improve search solutions. C Why would you want to build an ISVforce app instead of an OEM Embedded app? A. The app uses Chatter and Files. B. The app displays data in Opportunity and Lead objects. C. Your target customers may not already have Salesforce. D. The app uses Customer Community Plus licenses. B Why would you want to build an OEM Embedded app instead of an ISVforce app? A. The app's functionality enhances the Sales Cloud, but not Service Cloud. B. The app uses Customer Community Plus licenses. C. Your target customers may not already have Salesforce. D. You want your customers to buy user licenses directly from Salesforce. C What kind of Salesforce licenses must be included in a OEM Embedded app? A. F B. Customer Community Plus C. Customer Community D. Chatter Free A In your special partner DE org, you've created an app that you are ready to distribute. Displaying data from which object in your solution would prevent you from being able to use the OEM Embedded app type? A. Account B. Contact C. CouchPotato D. Case D How does Enterprise Edition differ from Professional Edition? A. Enterprise Edition has features that aren't available in Professional Edition B. Professional Edition is only sold to Accountants, Dentists, and Lawyers C. Enterprise Edition supports more users than Professional Edition D. Professional Edition has higher limits than Enterprise Edition A Which list correctly orders editions from smallest to largest? A. Enterprise Edition, Professional Edition, Group Edition, Performance Edition B. Professional Edition, Group Edition, Enterprise Edition, Performance Edition C. Group Edition, Professional Edition, Enterprise Edition, Performance Edition CONTINUED...