MSSC Safety Assessment Test Bank New Question correctly answered latest 2023/2024

MSSC Safety Assessment Test Bank 1. An_________ customer is a person or organization that receives services or products in exchange for compensation. a) Internal b) External c) In-house d) Departmental - correct answer External 2. Improving external customer satisfaction is the main objective of __________. a) Customer service department. b) Retired employees c) Maintenance departments d) HR departments. - correct answer customer service 3. Vendors could be considered what type of customer? a) Main b) Substantial c) Internal d) External - correct answer external 4. Customer satisfaction should always be the first objective considered when developing _________. a) Vendors b) New or improved products c) Teamwork d) Training matrix - correct answer new or improved products 5. The ________ of the product describes the features requested for the product to perform the tasks for which it was intended. a) Form b) Function c) Cost d) Utilization - correct answer function 6. Product designers should always consider the effects of tooling design and cost during ___________. a) Prototype development b) Process capability studies c) Team kickoff meetings d) Maintenance of a machine - correct answer prototype development 7. Product design teams should provide an environment that encourages ________. a) Criticize other team members at any time b) Add their design ideas freely c) Attend meetings whenever they are available d) Report team meetings to the boss - correct answer Add their design ideas free 8. Teamwork, concurrent engineering, tools and techniques are needed in order to make _______________. a) Product introduction b) Sales c) Product scam prevention efforts d) Safety tests - correct answer Product introduction 9. Engineers working with manufacturing to become aware of tooling limitations and other problems that may increase production time and cost is an example of _____________. a) Brainstorming b) Product analysis c) Concurrent engineering d) Production processing - correct answer Concurrent engineering 10. _______ is a design methodology that designs features into the product that makes it cheaper to manufacture, while maintaining its ability to perform its intended function. a) Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA) b) Design Criteria and Performance (DCP) c) Design, Manufacture, Deliver (DMD) d) Design for Production and Performance (DPP) - correct answer Design for Manufacturing and Assembly (DFMA) 11. to be successful ________must be tied to the company's business plan. a) Team goals b) Donations to the community c) The stock market d) Cross-Training assignments - correct answer team goals 12. A team should develop a spending plan as part of their decision making process ________________. a) to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project b) to ensure that they use all the money allocated to the project c) in case they are audited d) because it is a requirement of all teams - correct answer to ensure that they do not exceed the amount of money allocated to the project 13. Supervisors should set measurable objectives to have a way to ____________. a) Eliminate the need to review employees b) Limit the number of employees who can receive a bonus c) Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance d) Have a way to collect data to satisfy management reports - correct answer Have good performance criteria for review of employee performance 14. People working together discussing issues and making decisions are key elements of a _______________. a) successful work group b) SPC program c) JIT process d) Histogram - correct answer successful work group 15. Company objectives and production goals are important pieces of data to __________. a) Retired employee b) Forklift training certification data c) Self-directed work team d) Predictive maintenance program - correct answer Self-directed work team 16. Promoting competition among teams or departments _________________. a) Helps management set their own goals b) Helps establish the baseline to set team goals c) Is a reason to set measurable team goals d) Is not a reason to set measurable team goals - correct answer Is not a reason to set measurable team goals 17. Top level management must support a team for it to be ______________. a) Successful b) Ratified c) Certified Fully staffed - correct answer Successful 18. When a team sets objectives that they wish to accomplish, care should be taken to ensure that these objectives are _____________. a) Aggressive b) Predictable c) Measurable d) Justifiable - correct answer measurable 19. To ensure that a team has____________ meetings, rules for team behavior should be enforced. a) Weekly b) Unproductive c) Productive d) Long - correct answer productive 20. The first step in a team development process is an awkward stage for the team members called ______________. a) Storming b) Norming c) Performing d) Forming - correct answer forming 21. When a team is formed to tackle a problem, _______________________. a) Supervisor is placed in charge b) Set of guidelines is supplied to guide decisions c) Cost evaluation is performed to justify their work d) Team kickoff meeting is held to get everyone up to speed on the task and meet each other - correct answer Team kickoff meeting is held to get everyone up to speed on the task and meet each other 22. ______________ is a technique teams use for generating as many ideas as possible. a) Storming b) Norming c) Brainstorming d) Pareto principle - correct answer Brainstorming 23. During a team meeting, any solutions to the problem being discussed that do not meet one or more of the must-have criteria should be _______________. a) Discussed fully b) Tabled to a later meeting c) Given equal consideration d) Eliminated - correct answer Eliminated 24. Customer service refers to people and other resources a company devotes to ________. a) assisting customers b) product design c) sales d) cost analysis - correct answer assisting customers 25. In customer service, it is important to ________________. a) never admit being at fault b) look into the customer's problem, find a solution, and follow through c) make the customer admit to being at least partially at fault d) make the customer like you even it it means placing the blame on someone else in the organization - correct answer look into the customer's problem, find a solution, and follow through 26. Teams should strictly enforce rules about _______to minimize conflict. a) attendance b) arguing c) goal setting d) Facilitator selection - correct answer arguing 27. Which type of customer service information stored in a database could help to improve product quality? __________________. a) concerns customers have with specific problems b) customer orders c) customer banking information d) customer addresses. - correct answer concerns customers have with specific problems 28. When a customer service agent answers the phone, they should try to answer between the ______________. a) second and the fourth ring b) third and the fifth ring c) first and the second ring d) fourth and the fifth ring - correct answer second and the fourth ring 29. Which of the following is not used as a problem analysis tool? ____________. a) Brainstorming b) Shipping Manifest c) Cause and effect diagrams d) Root cause analysis - correct answer shipping manifest 30. In a team, the _________ is the one who will stimulate or guide the group to think of ideas. a) facilitator b) recorder c) president d) supervisor - correct answer facilitator 31. ____________ involves every employee in the company continually looking for ways to improve processes, and eliminate wasteful actions. a) Concurrent engineering b) Continuous improvement c) Customer service d) Product development - correct answer continuous improvement 32. Reaching a _________ means that although the chosen solution may not be the first choice of everyone on the team, each member supports that solution as a viable option. a) impass b) majority c) milestone d) consensus - correct answer consensus 33. To be successful in achieving a goal, _______ must be capable of bringing people together, motivating them and finally focusing them in the right direction. a) Quality worker b) Leader c) vendor d) maintenance worker - correct answer Leader 34. One method used by _________ to get a team started in the right direction is to sequence the start up activities. a) A team leader b) a vendor c) An outside consultant d) Top management - correct answer A team leader 35. A team leader is responsible for setting up internal quality audits __________. a) The team is not spending too much money b) The teams increased pay rate is justified c) Production rates have increased d) Procedures are in place and being followed - correct answer Procedures are in place and being followed 36. The specific tasks an employee will be required to perform are described in ________. a) Company newsletter b) Job descriptions c) Employee evaluations d) Machine operation manuals - correct answer job descriptions 37. Project management should include __________enable team leaders on other projects to identify availability of potential team members. a) Guarantee of long term work for team members b) Planned release of personnel as the project comes to an end c) Record of underperforming team members d) Planned transfer of unused funds to other teams - correct answer Planned release of personnel as the project comes to an end 38. Cross-training increases an employee's value to the company because they have additional skill and________. a) Are eligible for increased pay b) Shorter work periods c) A better understanding of related job functions d) Can demand more benefits. - correct answer A better understanding of related job functions A training matrix or database that contains a list of employees and their specific skills ____________. a) Is an invasion of privacy b) Is used by HR for payroll c) Should be sold to telemarketers d) Should be used to assign people to jobs in areas where they already contain the required skills - correct answer Should be used to assign people to jobs in areas where they already contain the required skills 40. Communicating ____________is important when training employees. a) At the appropriate level b) Loudly c) In writing d) In multimedia - correct answer At the appropriate level 41. An average worker's productivity would be included in ______________. a) His or her time report b) Job standards description c) Calculation of break times d) Job Safety Analysis - correct answer Job standards description 42. Demonstrating the skills and abilities learned is a common component of a(n) ___________. a) Orientation program b) Apprentice program c) Quality circle meeting d) Team kickoff meeting. - correct answer Apprentice program 43. Companies have a better ability to match workers to specific job needs if they use _________. a) Statistical Process Control b) Cross-training c) Sensitivity d) Better background hiring checks - correct answer Cross-training 44. In today's competitive markets, processes and people are constantly changing, resulting in a large need for ____________. a) Unskilled workers b) Training c) Decreased quality d) Longer cycle times - correct answer Training 45. An employee will receive an update to their training record to reflect their certification when _____________. a) Forklift training is completed b) Forklift training is started c) New employee training is completed d) Packaging training is completed - correct answer Forklift training is completed 46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of ___________. a) Training on a new piece of equipment b) Training on your company's policies and procedures c) Product cost analysis d) Employee interviews - correct answer Training on a new piece of equipment 46. The equipment manufacturer is often the best source of ___________. a) Training on a new piece of equipment b) Training on your company's policies and procedures c) Product cost analysis d) Employee interviews - correct answer Training on a new piece of equipment 47. Manufacturing companies use _____ to save time and reduce cost of operation. a) Doctor visits b) Reactive maintenance c) OSHA regulations d) Training - correct answer Training 48. Job shadowing requires an employee that is being cross-trained to ______. a) Do all the work while the experienced worker observes b) Create a set of procedures for the job. c) Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow d) Come in after hours for training - correct answer Work closely alongside an experienced worker as their shadow 49. Companies often add production by adding another shift. If operators are hired for a new shift what will be needed? ___________ a) Customer shipment records b) Records of vacation time owed to existing operators c) Personnel records of existing operators d) Training records of existing operators - correct answer Training records of existing operators 50. A machinist who has learned to weld has undergone_________. a) Transformation b) Cross-training c) Special training d) Rehabilitation - correct answer Cross-training 51. Measurable ____________are important to the training process. a) Regulations b) Profits c) Objectives d) Restrictions - correct answer Objectives 52. When is the best time to offer safety-related training to employees? ________. a) Before an OSHA audit b) After there has been a serious accident c) At the end of the workday d) At new employee orientation - correct answer At new employee orientation Communication skills used by team members should include written communication, oral communication, ___________ and listening skills. a) Written communication b) Brainstorming c) Indirect communication d) Direct communication - correct answer Written communication 54. Clear statement of expectations are needed when _____________. a) Training employees b) Ordering lunch c) Writing safety manuals d) Giving directions - correct answer Training employees A good manager will attempt to develop a compromise between two workers __________. a) Want to work together b) Use SPC charts c) Have developed a conflict d) Are married to each other - correct answer Have developed a conflict 56. When you give positive feedback, always make sure that you are __________. a) Believable whether or not you are being honest b) Sincere c) Encouraging them to do more d) Comparing them to other team members - correct answer Sincere 57. An organizational method for the production areas that groups together all the machines that are needed to produce a part or a group of parts is called ________. a) Traditional b) Cellular c) Pod d) Flow - correct answer Cellular 58. Priority jobs should be discussed at ___________. a) At the beginning of shift meetings b) At the end of shift meetings c) Only when management is present d) Once a month at team meetings. - correct answer At the beginning of shift meetings 59. ________ management presents the information about the production process in a visual format so that the workers can use it to improve efficiency and promote safety. a) Top-down b) Self-directed c) Visual d) Concurrent - correct answer Visual 60. When team members reach a significant point in their work to improve a process, it is called a ____________. a) Signature turning point b) Milestone c) Turn for the worse d) Starting point - correct answer Milestone 61. A ________is used to establish a baseline measurement for evaluation of the process. a) Metric b) Pinnacle c) Process chart d) Production schedule - correct answer Metric 62. Data results are required to be made available to employees who participate in team building exercises. a) Team building exercises b) Environmental tests c) Holiday activities d) Fire drills - correct answer Environmental tests 63. When circumstances at work create a dangerous situation, you should _________. a) Not proceed until the dangerous situation is eliminated b) Proceed with the utmost care c) Ensure that personal protective equipment is used d) Apply for hazardous duty pay. - correct answer Not proceed until the dangerous situation is eliminated 64. What should a worker do if a paint filtering system breaks down and paint is being blown out on top of the roof? a) The system should be shut down. b) The system can be safely run until the maintenance team arrives. c) The employees should be notified - correct answer The system should be shut down. 65. Everyone in the workplace is responsible for ________. a) SPC analysis b) Product inspections c) Understanding JIT guidelines d) Accident prevention - correct answer Accident prevention 66. _______ is the federal agency that publishes and enforces safety and health regulations for companies in the United States. a) OSHA b) FDA c) FCC d) FICA - correct answer OSHA 67. Taken corrective action based on safety regulations from employees will ____________. a) encourage employees to report safety suggestions. b) prevent employees from reporting safety suggestions. c) increase the overall cost of the product. d) reduce the amount of rework. - correct answer encourage employees to report safety suggestions. 68. OSHA stands for _________________. a) Occasionally Suppliers Have Accidents b) Occupational Safety and Health Administration c) Office of Safe Housing Authority d) Office of Safety & Hazardous Areas - correct answer Occupational Safety and Health Administration 69. You should immediately report _____________ to reduce the possibility of other complications. a) Low production rates b) On-the-job injuries c) Suggestions for changes in Holiday rules d) Interest in changing jobs - correct answer On-the-job injuries 70. Supervisors andor safety committees should be made aware of possible improvements in ergonomics. a) Cost overruns b) Only items that do not get people in trouble c) possible improvements in ergonomics. d) Unclean areas - correct answer possible improvements in ergonomics 71. New employees or contractors should be instructed in proper evacuation procedures a) In case they forget their access passes b) to ensure that they can exit the facility safely in case of an emergency. c) Unless they work in a safe area d) Only if they didn't receive this instruction at their previous place of employment - correct answer to ensure that they can exit the facility safely in case of an emergency 72. Human caused injuries may be broken down further into two sub-categories __________ and accidental. a) Intentional b) Carelessness c) Threatening d) Hostile - correct answer Hostile 73. Zero tolerance is a typical company policy to address _________. a) Absenteeism b) Violent behavior c) Safety violations d) Vacation abuse - correct answer Violent behavior 74. An assessment of safety and environmental compliance is required when_______________. a) Making repairs b) installing new equipment c) hiring contractors d) packaging equipment for shipment - correct answer installing new equipment 75. If you notice an employee acting in a manner that jeopardizes the safety of others, and you do not feel comfortable approaching that person, you should tell your coworkers to approach the person. a) Report the person to a supervisor immediately b) tell your coworkers to approach the person c) report the actions to a supervisor at the end of the shift d) write a note and leave it at the person's workstation - correct answer Report the person to a supervisor immediately 76. An employee should perform an immediate emergency shutdown of their machine and evacuate the building if __________________. a) An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger b) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is clearly a sign of danger c) An evacuation alarm goes off and there is no sign of danger d) The weather service issues a sever weather warning - correct answer An evacuation alarm goes off whether or not there is a sign of danger 77. Operating procedures would normally be found in__________________. a) Work training manuals b) Equipment manuals c) SOP manuals d) Emergency manuals - correct answer Work training manuals 78. Which of the following should be done when a new or different machine is installed? a) A lockouttagout b) A job safety analysis c) An environmental test d) An MSDS report - correct answer A job safety analysis 79. Every person in the company is responsible for __________________. a) Supervision of other employees b) Handling of hazardous materials c) Performing any job in the company d) Preventing unsafe conditions - correct answer Preventing unsafe conditions 80. When a supervisor is aware of a personal argument between two employees, what should heshe do? a) Do not get involved b) Make sure there are no threats to an employee's safety. c) Warn both employees to keep their problems outside work d) Choose a side and stick to it - correct answer Make sure there are no threats to an employee's safety 81. The human resources department is the most common source of information about ___________. a) Machine start-up procedures b) Appropriate behavior c) Productivity improvements d) Quality - correct answer Appropriate behavior 82. If you notice a forklift truck driver operating the forklift while falling asleep, you should ____________. a) Call the supervisor the first chance you get b) Ignore it. It's not your job c) Get them off the forklift d) Yell loudly to wake them up - correct answer Get them off the forklift 83. Anyone who notices another employee engaging in an unsafe practice should __________. a) Send an anomonous letter to the supervisor b) Report the incident to the safety committee c) get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice. - correct answer get constructive input to the employee to encourage good safety practice 84. The _____________ should be informed if one of the contractors is creating or operating in an unsafe condition. a) Company president b) Safety officer c) Company security d) Project manager - correct answer Project manager 85. When an alarm sounds, you should initiate emergency shutdown procedures and evacuate __________. a) Immediately b) As soon as you see others doing so c) Before power fails d) After you confirm it is not a false alarm - correct answer Immediately 86. A walk-through safety inspection is performed by the company's _______. a) Safety Officer b) Safety Committee c) Floor Supervisor d) OSHA inspector - correct answer Safety Committee 87. If you notice that an air handling machine is making a noise you think might be abnormal what should you do? a) Ignore it since you are not assigned to this machine b) Contact the maintenance department c) Assume the maintenance department will fix it when they can d) Assume it is normal operation - correct answer Contact the maintenance department 88. Everyone is responsible for___________. a) Giving employees performance reviews b) Recording SPC data c) Performing quality system audits d) accident prevention - correct answer accident prevention 89. The company handbook usually contains policies on a wide variety of topics, including ________________. a) Safety regulations b) Specific job task descriptions c) Names of team members d) Employee hire dates - correct answer Safety regulations 90. A safety team may decide a safety audit is required a) An accident occurs involving an oil spill b) OSHA is planning a visit c) The team's budget is being considered for reduction d) A new person is hired - correct answer An accident occurs involving an oil spill 91. The team leader or supervisor should immediately be told of __________. a) Your desire to change jobs. b) Any industrial injuries c) Your interest in attending college classes d) Stable machine operation. - correct answer Any industrial injuries 92. What is a symptom of drug or alcohol use a) Decreased absenteeism b) Improved interpersonal interactions c) Clear speech d) Decreased productivity - correct answer Decreased productivity. 93. OSHA conducts inspections for a number of reasons, which are categorized into five priority levels according to their severity. A Priority one indicates _______________. a) Employee complains of alleged violations or unhealthy conditions b) Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm. c) After any accidental death, or when an accident causes five or more employees to be injured d) Follow-up To ensure that a noted imminent hazard has been removed from the workplace - correct answer Imminent danger- a danger that may cause death or serious physical harm 94. Potential hazards associated with equipment should be identified when ______. a) The engineer does not know what heshe is doing b) Bidding on jobs c) new equipment is being designed for a process. d) Identifying cost of labor - correct answer new equipment is being designed for a process 95. ______________ is the cause of many industrial accidents. a) Carelessness b) Sabotage c) Re work d) Adherence to outdated safety requirements - correct answer Carelessness 96. Hearing protection includes ear plugs, canal caps and ________. a) Headphones b) Ear muffs c) Head bands d) Ear wraps - correct answer Ear muffs 97. When working under equipment or personnel, _________. a) Head protection is needed b) Eye protection is needed c) The use of fall arrest equipment is required d) Entering plant production areas is prohibited - correct answer Head protection is needed 98. Welding creates a bright light that can damage the ________. a) Eyes b) Ears c) Face d) Hands - correct answer Eyes 99. Safety glasses with side shields should be used when working with a________ for additional eye protection. a) A grinding wheel b) Computers c) A screwdriver d) Other people - correct answer A grinding wheel 100. A ________ should be worn to protect the face from splashes or flying particles. a) Welding mask b) Goggles c) Face shield d) Safety glasses - correct answer Face shield 101. Personal protection devices, such as safety glasses and welding helmets, should be inspected ____________. a) For an ASTM rating b) For EPA compliance c) To ensure that they are not damaged and have a proper fit d) Bi-monthly - correct answer To ensure that they are not damaged and have a proper FIT 102. To protect the eyes from welding flash, welders must use ____________. a) Safety glasses b) Welding helmet c) Hard hat d) Welding curtain - correct answer Welding helmet 103. Safety glasses with side shields should be worn with _______ for additional eye protection. a) Sunglasses b) Shaded lens c) Ear plugs d) A welding helmet - correct answer A welding helmet 104. ________ are similar to safety glasses except they provide a tighter fit. a) Face shields b) Canal caps c) Welding masks d) Goggles - correct answer Goggles 105. A certification from a physician is required before ____________. a) Using air breathing apparatus b) Working out on a treadmill at the company fitness center c) Operating a conveyor d) Working in confined spaces - correct answer Using air breathing apparatus 106. OSHA has set permissible noise level at __ decibels for an eight-hour period. a) 60 b) 40 c) 90 d) 120 - correct answer 90 107. OSHA provides regulations to limit the _____________. a) Exposure to noise b) Number of hours an employee can work c) Speed of machinery in the plant d) Waste products that can go in a sewer - correct answer Exposure to noise 108. In areas where noise levels are excessive, ______should be utilized. a) Robots b) Safety glasses c) Hearing protection d) White noise - correct answer Hearing protection 109. Earplugs should be replaced when they are no longer ________. a) Covered by the warranty b) Pliable c) Rigid d) Inflexible - correct answer Pliable 110. ___________ are cylindrical pieces of foam stamped from a foam sheet. a) Disposable polyurethane foam plugs b) Disposable PVC foam plugs c) Banded ear plugs d) Ear muffs - correct answer Disposable polyurethane foam plugs 111. The first step in inserting a foam earplug is to ____________. a) Roll and compress the plug between your thumb and forefinger b) Wet it slightly c) Press it firmly into the ear canal d) Flatten the plug with the heel of your hand - correct answer Roll and compress the plug between your thumb and forefinger 112. _______ wounds are caused by narrow sharp objects penetrating deep into the skin tissue. a) Cut b) Abrasion c) Puncture d) Chemical - correct answer Puncture 113. Screwdrivers are a frequent cause of injury to ________. a) Hands b) Eyes c) Legs d) Ears - correct answer Hands 114. To protect your hands, you should only wear gloves approved by ________. a) STMA b) ASTM c) DOT d) OSHA - correct answer ASTM 115. Working around live electrical circuits requires a worker to wear gloves approved by ________. a) ASTM b) OSHA c) FDA d) DOT - correct answer ASTM 116. _______ gloves protect against electrical surges. a) Cloth b) Heat resistant c) Insulated d) Metal mesh - correct answer Insulated 117. Sharp objects can pierce the ______ of the shoe resulting in puncture wounds of the foot. a) Heel b) Sole c) Uppers d) Steel toe - correct answer Sole 118. Leather shoes are worn during welding to protect the feet from __________. a) Sharp metal on the floor b) Extreme temperature c) UV radiation d) from stray drops of molten metal. - correct answer from stray drops of molten metal 119. ________ shoes provide foot protection against falling objects. a) Reinforced b) Electrostatic dissipating c) Rubber d) Steel toe - correct answer Steel toe 120. One of the most common causes of head injuries is _______. a) Chemical splashes b) Toxic vapors c) Banging your head into an unseen object d) Welding splatter - correct answer Banging your head into an unseen object 121. Painting on a hard hat should be avoided because it might _________. a) Cover any safety labels b) React with the composition of the headwear and reduce its effectiveness c) Be offensive to other workers d) Reduce the thermal properties of the headwear - correct answer React with the composition of the headwear and reduce its effectiveness 122. Class G hard hats are _______ and provide some protection from contact with live electrical circuits. They are tested at 2200 volts. a) Non-conductive b) Conductive c) Called bump hats d) Designed for electrical trades - correct answer Non-conductive 123. __________ hazards include anything that can cause cuts, scrapes, punctures or impacts. a) Fire b) Chemical c) Mechanical d) Hazardous material - correct answer Mechanical 124. Clothing worn to protect against electrical shock must be _________. a) Non-conductive b) Conductive c) Flame resistant d) Designed for the voltage to which they will be exposed - correct answer Non-conductive 125. _________ are commonly made from leather and designed to go over a welder's pants to protect their legs from molten metal or sparks. a) Coveralls b) Sleeves c) Chaps d) Pant guards - correct answer Chaps 126. _____ are formed when a solid such as a metal, is heated above its boiling point and then condensed in cool air. a) Dusts b) Gases c) Vapors d) Fumes - correct answer Fumes 127. _________ is the most common way for a chemical to enter the body. a) Electrical current b) Inhalation c) Chemical d) Water - correct answer Inhalation 128. OSHA defines air as oxygen-deficient if it contains less than ______ percent oxygen. a) 20.2 b) 15.8 c) 28 d) 19.5 - correct answer 19.5 129. Before workers work in areas that require ________, they should have a medical exam to determine if they have a pre-existing health problem. a) Safety glasses b) Ear plugs c) Respirators d) Hard hats - correct answer Respirators 130. An employee should not enter a confined space that has an oxygen level less than ______. a) 17 percent b) 20 percent c) 19.5 percent d) 80 percent - correct answer 19.5 percent 131. A _________ respirator only covers the nose and mouth of the user. a) Quarter- mask b) Half-mask c) Full-mask d) Hood - correct answer Quarter- mask 132. _______ respirators purify the air by filtering the air to reduce the concentration of substances such as dusts, mists and fumes. a) Particulate removing b) Vapor orGas Removing c) Atmosphere-supplying d) Self-Contained - correct answer Particulate removing 133. When working in areas that have extreme respiratory conditions, such as a confined space with toxic fumes, a ________ apparatus should be used. a) HEPA filter b) Disposable mask c) Self-contained breathing apparatus d) Full mask - correct answer Self-contained breathing apparatus 134. To check for leaks on a half-mask respirator when inhaling, cover the _______with the palms of your hands. a) Exhalation port b) Cartridges c) Directional valve d) Sides of the mask - correct answer Cartridges 135. A class C fire is one that consists of burning _____________. a) Exotic flammable metals b) Live electrical lines or equipment c) Paper, wood and rubber d) Chemicals - correct answer Live electrical lines or equipment 136. ________ fires are considered Class C fires. a) Paper b) Wood c) Electrical d) Smokeless - correct answer Electrical 137. Open flames should not be used in a dust area because of ___________. a) Cleanliness b) Sanitation c) Possible ignition or explosion d) Clogs breathing apparatus - correct answer Possible ignition or explosion 138. To allow for proper fire protection, which of the following is important? ______. a) Air hoses properly stored b) Door ways are closed and paths be clear c) Safety manuals be available d) Windows be closed - correct answer Door ways are closed and paths be clear 139. To avoid potential fires, combustible materials must be kept a minimum of __ feet from any potential ignition sources. a) 100 b) 35 c) 10 d) 65 - correct answer 35 140. In an area that consistently contains dust, or other combustibles you should _______. a) Use kerosene heaters b) Allow smoking c) Allow use of flames or other ignition sources d) Remove all sources of ignition - correct answer Remove all sources of ignition 141. In the event of a fire, it is important to _____________. a) Panic b) Maintain a clear path to the exit c) Prop fire doors open to make getting people out a faster process d) Store combustible materials in the stairwell, away from the fire - correct answer Maintain a clear path to the exit 142. To prevent fire hazard, the following action should be taken. __________. a) Keep new rags nearvy b) Wipe up water spills promptly c) Clean metal chips from a machine d) Dispose of rags promptly - correct answer Dispose of rags promptly 143. An odor is added to _______ so that it is detected easier. a) Natural gas b) Oxygen c) Cleaning fluids d) Paint - correct answer Natural gas 144. The dates and charge on the fire extinguishers should be checked _______. a) During the yearly fire system inspection b) When the fire alarm control panel (FACP) is repaired c) When performing a weekly inspection of fire system d) When inspecting the fire sprinkler system - correct answer When performing a weekly inspection of fire system 145. A person should work on a live electrical circuit ______. a) Never b) Only when it is believed safe to do so c) Whenever it is convenient d) Always - correct answer Never 146. A fire extinguisher operates by removing the fuel, heat, or oxygen from the fire. ________. a) TRUE b) FALSE - correct answer TRUE 147. Someone throws a cigarette into a trash can and the contents of the can catch on fire. The employee that notices the fire should ____________. a) Sound the alarm b) Drag the trash can outside c) Attempt to extinguish the fire with a Type 3 fire extinguisher d) Place the lid on the trash can to smother the fire - correct answer Sound the alarm 148. When a small fire is noticed near a cabinet of flammable materials you should first ___________. a) Remove the flammable materials to a safe place b) Run to the nearest phone to call for help c) Sound the alarm d) Put it out with a portable fire extinguisher - correct answer Sound the alarm 149. The ______ fire extinguisher does not leave a harmful residue and is sometimes used to put out fires on planes and expensive equipment. a) Carbon dioxide b) Water-Pressurized c) Halon d) Powder infused - correct answer Halon 150. A paper fire can be safely extinguished using a Class ___ fire extinguisher. a) A b) B c) C d) D - correct answer A 151. A CO2 fire extinguisher is used for which type of fire? ______. a) Magnesium b) Paper c) Electrical d) Wood - correct answer Electrical 152. Which of the following is considered an electrical hazard? ___________. a) Working on a known dead circuit b) Using a properly grounded electrical cord c) Using circuit protection devices d) Overloading a circuit - correct answer Overloading a circuit 153. When performing work on equipment you should __________. a) Only work on live electrical circuits when necessary to avoid disrupting production b) Only use lockouttagout procedures if the shift will change during the repair and a new operator will arrive c) Just tag out the equipment and not use your lock to save time d) Never work on a live electrical circuit - correct answer Never work on a live electrical circuit 154. An electrical lockouttagout system is designed _________________. a) Deter a criminal b) Keep unauthorized people from using certain electrical equipment c) Mark a circuit that is not up to code d) Prevent someone from energizing a circuit that is dangerous or being worked on - correct answer Prevent someone from energizing a circuit that is dangerous or being worked on 155. When performing an electrical lockouttagout, the last thing the worker should do is _____________. a) Put the lock on the disconnect b) Put the tag on the disconnect c) Test the locked out equipment for power d) Leave the key in the lock for others - correct answer Test the locked out equipment for power 156. The three main components of an electrical lockouttagout are: ___________. a) Lock, switch, tag b) Lock, tag, key c) Lock, hasp, tag d) Hasp, tag, key - correct answer Lock, hasp, tag 157. First aid is _____________________. a) the immediate care given to an injured person until professional medical personnel arrive b) calming the victim c) helping out. d) Doing the best to calm person - correct answer the immediate care given to an injured person until professional medical personnel arrive 158. First aid training enables a person to provide _____________. a) help with safety rules. b) Look for violations. c) Working faster d) First aid until professional medical help arrives - correct answer First aid until professional medical help arrives 159. The action taken to treat an injury until medical help arrives is called ____________. - correct answer First aid 160. A blood borne pathogen is transmitted _____________. - correct answer by coming in to contact with blood or other bodily fluids. 161. Blood or other bodily fluids are a source of transmission from one person to another of - correct answer blood borne pathogens. 162. An effective way to kill any potential blood borne pathogen is to ____________. - correct answer clean the blood spill with a 10% solution of bleach and water 163. If you are the only trained first aid provider at the scene of an accident you should ________________. - correct answer ask a bystander to call 911 while you attend to the victim 164. When attending to a person with possible broken bones you should ____________. - correct answer only move the person if they are in immediate danger 165. Call 911 immediately if you notice that another worker has ___________. - correct answer swallowed a cleaning chemical 166. Cold water is the best treatment for _________. - correct answer minor burns 167. If a person has swallowed a chemical you should ______________. - correct answer call 911 or poison control and tell them what chemical was taken 168. To treat a minor burn you ______________. - correct answer should run the burn under cold water 169. The first thing to do when treating someone for electric shock the first thing you should do is ______________. - correct answer remove the source of the electric shock 170. When responding to a workplace accident do not __________. a) Look for clues that caused the accident b) Ask bystanders for help c) Put yourself in danger d) Call 911 - correct answer Put yourself in danger 171. A safety officer should place ______________by the telephones in case they are needed. a) Vendor's telephone number b) Financial officer's telephone number c) Emergency telephone numbers d) Team leaders' telephone numbers - correct answer Emergency telephone numbers 172. An eyewash station is required within a 10 second walk of workers who use __________. a) Acids or caustics on a daily basis b) Cutting tools c) Packaging materials or metal d) Any type of machinery - correct answer Acids or caustics on a daily basis 173. A suitable eyewash station should provide continuous water flow for at least _______. a) 10 minutes b) 15 minutes c) 30 minutes d) 40 minutes - correct answer 15 minutes 174. Emergency showers and eyewashes must be available where ______ are used. a) Bases b) Fluids c) Caustics or acids d) Power tools - correct answer Caustics or acids 175. If a worker gets a caustic chemical in his or her eyes, what is the first action that should be taken? ____________. a) Call the safety manager b) Look up the MSDS sheet c) Flush eys with water d) Call a doctor - correct answer Flush eys with water 176. Tetanus is a possible result from ______________. a) Puncture wounds from a nail b) Broken bones c) Second hand smoke d) Sprains - correct answer Puncture wounds from a nail 177. If you have even a minor accident at work, you should ______________. a) Contact your supervisor immediately b) Contact the company management c) Contact human resources d) Contact OSHA - correct answer Contact your supervisor immediately 178. Keeping your workbench clean and following all safety rules are essential to ___________. a) Qualify for the weekly bonus b) Proper SPC procedures c) Ensure FCC compliance d) Maintaining a safe work area - correct answer Maintaining a safe work area 179. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will _______. a) Increase machine reliability b) Increase the market share of the product c) Reduce worker fatigue d) Reduce non-compliant parts - correct answer Reduce worker fatigue 180. A worker should clean up a small spot of liquid on the floor immediately if the liquid is ________. a) Oil b) Caustic chemical c) Radioactive d) Explosive - correct answer Oil 181. Which of the following situations is considered a safety hazard in the plant? a) Maintain operating at maximum speed b) Oil spots on the floor. c) Pallet with boxes stored on it d) Workstation with wear on the work surface. - correct answer Oil spots on the floor 182. Oil spots should be cleaned ____________. a) Immediately b) Within 24 hours c) By Hazmat teams d) By maintenance people only - correct answer Immediately 183. To prevent a worker from being injured in a fall, ______________. a) Training on proper falling should be provided b) Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately c) The worker should wear protective padding d) First responders should be immediately available - correct answer Oil and water spots should be wiped up immediately 184. Pedestrian walkway areas that need to be cleanable should not have ___________. a) Handrails b) Painted surfaces c) Lines d) Added traction - correct answer Added traction 185. Mirrors help make a safe pedestrian walkway by ______________. a) Aiding in backing vehicles b) Reflecting light into dark areas c) Helping control blind spots d) Allowing workers to check their clothing - correct answer Helping control blind spots 186. A wet floor is a common cause of ______________. a) Fall accidents b) Reduced machine productivity c) Employee illness d) Forklift skid accidents - correct answer Fall accidents 187. A worker should use pedestrian walkways and doors when _____________. a) To keep from getting lost b) When forklifts are operating in the area c) To meet OSHA requirements d) To reach your destination in the least time - correct answer When forklifts are operating in the area 188. It is especially important that employees stay within marked pedestrian aisles when walking through a plant if ________________. a) Machines are operating at peak efficiency b) Forklifts are being used c) Trucks are docked at the shipping department d) There are many people walking through the plant - correct answer Forklifts are being used 189. Safe work ________ are a means of ensuring all precautions have been taken when a worker has to perform tasks in a situation that may endanger his or her health. a) Permits b) Records c) Habits d) Passports - correct answer Records 190. Plant personnel should receive training and have proper authorization before ______. a) Entering a permit-required confined space b) Entering office areas c) Taking a course at a community college d) Leaving work - correct answer Entering a permit-required confined space 191. Outside contractors who are hired to clean permit-required confined spaces must provide _____________. a) Nothing b) History of similar work done c) Insurance d) Proof of certification as certified entry personnel - correct answer Proof of certification as certified entry personnel 192. Only employees who are authorized and trained are allowed to __________. a) Enter a permit-required confined space b) Use the washroom c) Identify safety hazards d) Participate in an evacuation drill - correct answer Enter a permit-required confined space 193. Licensure or certification is required ___________. a) To perform a lock out tag out b) To enter a confined space c) To participate in hazardous material training d) To perform equipment maintenance - correct answer To enter a confined space 194. Because of toxic vapors, use of a breathing apparatus ____________. a) Is required when working in identified confined spaces b) Is required when working alone c) Is required whenever fireproof protective clothing is also required d) Is required by a physician - correct answer Is required when working in identified confined spaces 195. Which device of the following requires a certified welder and re-certification of the device after the weld? ______________. a) Pressure rated devices b) Oil tanks c) Frames with seams over 5 inches d) Automobile frames - correct answer Pressure rated devices 196. Ergonomics guidelines help create a well-designed work setting that will_______ . a) Increase machine reliability b) Increase the market value of the product c) Reduce worker fatigue d) Reduce non-conforming parts - correct answer Reduce worker fatigue 197. Adapting the work area to fit the person to reduce stress is called ________. a) Environmental adaptation b) Ego c) Ergonomics d) Excessive - correct answer Ergonomics