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FDOPS 1 Questions And Answers With Complete Solutions
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FDOPS 1 Questions And AnswersWith Complete Solutions
Frequency of training for effects of surface contamination
correct answer: once every 12 months
Maneuvering Area definition correct answer: used for taxi,
take-off, and landing
11,000 feet is expressed how? correct answer: one one thousand
feet
which is more important: A/W directive or MEL? correct
answer: Airworthiness Directive
Night is defined how? correct answer: the time between the end
of evening civil twilight
beginning of morning civil twilight
Unless for the purposes of Take-off, landing or any
emergencies, the minimum altitude over an aerodrome is -
correct answer: 2000ft
When enroute to destination, the weather at alternate falls below
'alternate mimimus' - what do you do? correct answer: Proceed
normally to destination
IFR take-offs are governed by? correct answer: take off
visibility - RVR then reported ground vis.
,reported estimate of runway visibility is valid for how long?
correct answer: 20 minutes
IFR approaches are governed by? correct answer: reported RVR
(approach ban)
Max flight duty time within 24 hour period: correct answer: 14
hours
When does DISPATCH RELEASE occur? correct answer:
when dispatcher approves operational flight plan
Type A Operational Control System? correct answer: Airline
Operations w/ MORE than 6 Airplanes:
-having a passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more;
-having a maximum gross take-off weight of 45,455 kg (100,000
lbs.) or more
-operating under complex operations.
Type B Operational Control System? correct answer: Airline
Operations - - passenger-seating configuration of 20 or more
- having a maximum gross take-off weight of less than 45,455
kg (100,000 lbs.)
or.
6 or FEWER Airplanes:
- passenger-seating config of 20 or more
- having a maximum gross take-off weight of 45,455 kg
(100,000 lbs.) or more
- not complex operations
,How many items must be included in operational flight plan for
Type B Control System? correct answer: 30
ICAO flight plan - what is departure time correct answer:
estimated off-block time
What is appropriate type of flight plan for: CYVR - Hawaii
correct answer: ICAO
Control area extensions - dimensions and class of airspace
correct answer: 2200AGL - 17,999ASL - E
A new or replacing NOTAM without an APRX is valid for?
correct answer: until the time quoted in the NOTAM
ATC enroute radar separation for aircraft in controlled airspace
is provided to: correct answer: VFR, IFR, and CVFR aircraft
Light aircraft is how heavy? (wake turbulence) correct answer:
15,500lbs >
Designated airways within mountainous regions - do you need
to apply corrections? correct answer: no - because it is a
controlled AIRWAY (published MEA's).
What is an ATC clearance? correct answer: requires compliance
when accepted by PIC
ADIZ rules apply to who? correct answer: all aircraft
, Primary role of accident investigation is to - correct answer:
prevent recurrence of accidents or incidents
Position reports in the NCA are made: correct answer: 10,
100W, 5, 65N
Flight Control Lock - correct answer: provides unmistakable
warning so that the person operating the airplane will know that
it is engaged
CVR's are mandatory for: correct answer: Turbine powered a/c
flown by multi-engine turbine powered aircraft within an Airline
Operation
Where an FDR is required, when must it be operated
continuously? correct answer: From start of T/O to completion
of landing
For Canadian A/C operating in the US, TCAS/ACAS II is
mandatory for A/C having more than ____ pax seats correct
answer: 30
TCAS/ACAS I provides what? correct answer: Traffic Alerts
(TA's) but not Resolution Advisories (RA's)
RVSM code for ICAO flight plans correct answer: W
For flights within the North Atlantic OTS, night time tracks are,
_______, and are published by the _______ Area Control Centre
correct answer: Eastbound, Gander
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