the nurse is administering medications through a n
a client who is in hospice care complains of incre
Written for
2021 HESI RN Fundamentals v1 and v2
2021 HESI RN Fundamentals v1 and v2
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Hesi
Fundamentals
Practice
Test
An
elderly
client
with
a
fractured
left
hip
is
on
strict
bedrest.
Which
nursing
measure
is
essential
to
the
client's
nursing
care?
A.
Massage
any
reddened
areas
for
at
least
five
minutes.
B.
Encourage
active
range
of
motion
exercises
on
extremities.
C.
Position
the
client
laterally,
prone,
and
dorsally
in
sequence.
D.
Gently
lift
the
client
when
moving
into
a
desired
position.
-
ANSTo
avoid
shearing
forces
when
repositioning,
the
client
should
be
lifted
gently
across
a
surface
(D).
Reddened
areas
should
not
be
massaged
(A)
since
this
may
increase
the
damage
to
already
traumatized
skin.
To
control
pain
and
muscle
spasms,
active
range
of
motion
(B)
may
be
limited
on
the
affected
leg.
The
position
described
in
(C)
is
contraindicated
for
a
client
with
a
fractured
left
hip.
Correct
Answer:
D
The
nurse
is
administering
medications
through
a
nasogastric
tube
(NGT)
which
is
connected
to
suction.
After
ensuring
correct
tube
placement,
what
action
should
the
nurse
take
next?
A.
Clamp
the
tube
for
20
minutes.
B.
Flush
the
tube
with
water.
C.
Administer
the
medications
as
prescribed.
D.
Crush
the
tablets
and
dissolve
in
sterile
water.
-
ANSThe
NGT
should
be
flushed
before,
after
and
in
between
each
medication
administered
(B).
Once
all
medications
are
administered,
the
NGT
should
be
clamped
for
20
minutes
(A).
(C
and
D)
may
be
implemented
only
after
the
tubing
has
been
flushed.
Correct
Answer:
B
A
client
who
is
in
hospice
care
complains
of
increasing
amounts
of
pain.
The
healthcare
provider
prescribes
an
analgesic
every
four
hours
as
needed.
Which
action
should
the
nurse
implement?
A.
Give
an
around-the-clock
schedule
for
administration
of
analgesics.
B.
Administer
analgesic
medication
as
needed
when
the
pain
is
severe.
C.
Provide
medication
to
keep
the
client
sedated
and
unaware
of
stimuli.
D.
Offer
a
medication-free
period
so
that
the
client
can
do
daily
activities.
-
ANSThe
most
effective
management
of
pain
is
achieved
using
an
around-the-clock
schedule
that
provides
analgesic
medications
on
a
regular
basis
(A)
and
in
a
timely
manner.
Analgesics
are
less
effective
if
pain
persists
until
it
is
severe,
so
an
analgesic
medication
should
be
administered
before
the
client's
pain
peaks
(B).
Providing
comfort
is
a
priority
for
the
client
who
is
dying,
but
sedation
that
impairs
the
client's
ability
to
interact
and
experience
the
time
before
life
ends
should
be
minimized
(C).
Offering
a
medication-free
period
allows
the
serum
drug
level
to
fall,
which
is
not
an
effective
method
to
manage
chronic
pain
(D).
Correct
Answer:
A
When
assessing
a
client
with
wrist
restraints,
the
nurse
observes
that
the
fingers
on
the
right
hand
are
blue.
What
action
should
the
nurse
implement
first? A.
Loosen
the
right
wrist
restraint.
B.
Apply
a
pulse
oximeter
to
the
right
hand.
C.
Compare
hand
color
bilaterally.
D.
Palpate
the
right
radial
pulse.
-
ANSThe
priority
nursing
action
is
to
restore
circulation
by
loosening
the
restraint
(A),
because
blue
fingers
(cyanosis)
indicates
decreased
circulation.
(C
and
D)
are
also
important
nursing
interventions,
but
do
not
have
the
priority
of
(A).
Pulse
oximetry
(B)
measures
the
saturation
of
hemoglobin
with
oxygen
and
is
not
indicated
in
situations
where
the
cyanosis
is
related
to
mechanical
compression
(the
restraints).
Correct
Answer:
A
The
nurse
is
assessing
the
nutritional
status
of
several
clients.
Which
client
has
the
greatest
nutritional
need
for
additional
intake
of
protein?
A.
A
college-age
track
runner
with
a
sprained
ankle.
B.
A
lactating
woman
nursing
her
3-day-old
infant.
C.
A
school-aged
child
with
Type
2
diabetes.
D.
An
elderly
man
being
treated
for
a
peptic
ulcer.
-
ANSA
lactating
woman
(B)
has
the
greatest
need
for
additional
protein
intake.
(A,
C,
and
D)
are
all
conditions
that
require
protein,
but
do
not
have
the
increased
metabolic
protein
demands
of
lactation.
Correct
Answer:
B
A
client
is
in
the
radiology
department
at
0900
when
the
prescription
levofloxacin
(Levaquin)
500
mg
IV
q24h
is
scheduled
to
be
administered.
The
client
returns
to
the
unit
at
1300.
What
is
the
best
intervention
for
the
nurse
to
implement?
A.
Contact
the
healthcare
provider
and
complete
a
medication
variance
form.
B.
Administer
the
Levaquin
at
1300
and
resume
the
0900
schedule
in
the
morning.
C.
Notify
the
charge
nurse
and
complete
an
incident
report
to
explain
the
missed
dose.
D.
Give
the
missed
dose
at
1300
and
change
the
schedule
to
administer
daily
at
1300.
-
ANSTo
ensure
that
a
therapeutic
level
of
medication
is
maintained,
the
nurse
should
administer
the
missed
dose
as
soon
as
possible,
and
revise
the
administration
schedule
accordingly
to
prevent
dangerously
increasing
the
level
of
the
medication
in
the
bloodstream
(D).
The
nurse
should
document
the
reason
for
the
late
dose,
but
(A
and
C)
are
not
warranted.
(B)
could
result
in
increased
blood
levels
of
the
drug.
Correct
Answer:
D
While
instructing
a
male
client's
wife
in
the
performance
of
passive
range-of-motion
exercises
to
his
contracted
shoulder,
the
nurse
observes
that
she
is
holding
his
arm
above
and
below
the
elbow.
What
nursing
action
should
the
nurse
implement?
A.
Acknowledge
that
she
is
supporting
the
arm
correctly.
B.
Encourage
her
to
keep
the
joint
covered
to
maintain
warmth.
C.
Reinforce
the
need
to
grip
directly
under
the
joint
for
better
support.
D.
Instruct
her
to
grip
directly
over
the
joint
for
better
motion.
-
ANSThe
wife
is
performing
the
passive
ROM
correctly,
therefore
the
nurse
should
acknowledge
this
fact
(A).
The
joint
that
is
being
exercised
should
be
uncovered
(B)
while
the
rest
of
the
body
should
remain
covered
for
warmth
and
privacy.
(C
and
D)
do
not
provide
adequate
support
to
the
joint
while
still
allowing
for
joint
movement.
Correct
Answer:
A What
is
the
most
important
reason
for
starting
intravenous
infusions
in
the
upper
extremities
rather
than
the
lower
extremities
of
adults?
A.
It
is
more
difficult
to
find
a
superficial
vein
in
the
feet
and
ankles.
B.
A
decreased
flow
rate
could
result
in
the
formation
of
a
thrombosis.
C.
A
cannulated
extremity
is
more
difficult
to
move
when
the
leg
or
foot
is
used.
D.
Veins
are
located
deep
in
the
feet
and
ankles,
resulting
in
a
more
painful
procedure.
-
ANSVenous
return
is
usually
better
in
the
upper
extremities.
Cannulation
of
the
veins
in
the
lower
extremities
increases
the
risk
of
thrombus
formation
(B)
which,
if
dislodged,
could
be
life-threatening.
Superficial
veins
are
often
very
easy
(A)
to
find
in
the
feet
and
legs.
Handling
a
leg
or
foot
with
an
IV
(C)
is
probably
not
any
more
difficult
than
handling
an
arm
or
hand.
Even
if
the
nurse
did
believe
moving
a
cannulated
leg
was
more
difficult,
this
is
not
the
most
important
reason
for
using
the
upper
extremities.
Pain
(D)
is
not
a
consideration.
Correct
Answer:
B
The
nurse
observes
an
unlicensed
assistive
personnel
(UAP)
taking
a
client's
blood
pressure
with
a
cuff
that
is
too
small,
but
the
blood
pressure
reading
obtained
is
within
the
client's
usual
range.
What
action
is
most
important
for
the
nurse
to
implement?
A.
Tell
the
UAP
to
use
a
larger
cuff
at
the
next
scheduled
assessment.
B.
Reassess
the
client's
blood
pressure
using
a
larger
cuff.
C.
Have
the
unit
educator
review
this
procedure
with
the
UAPs.
D.
Teach
the
UAP
the
correct
technique
for
assessing
blood
pressure.
-
ANSThe
most
important
action
is
to
ensure
that
an
accurate
BP
reading
is
obtained.
The
nurse
should
reassess
the
BP
with
the
correct
size
cuff
(B).
Reassessment
should
not
be
postponed
(A).
Though
(C
and
D)
are
likely
indicated,
these
actions
do
not
have
the
priority
of
(B).
Correct
Answer:
B
A
client
is
to
receive
cimetidine
(Tagamet)
300
mg
q6h
IVPB.
The
preparation
arrives
from
the
pharmacy
diluted
in
50
ml
of
0.9%
NaCl.
The
nurse
plans
to
administer
the
IVPB
dose
over
20
minutes.
For
how
many
ml/hr
should
the
infusion
pump
be
set
to
deliver
the
secondary
infusion?
-
ANSThe
infusion
rate
is
calculated
as
a
ratio
proportion
problem,
i.e.,
50
ml/
20
min
:
x
ml/
60
min.
Multiply
extremes
and
means
50
×
60
/20x
1=
300/20=150
Correct
Answer:
150
Twenty
minutes
after
beginning
a
heat
application,
the
client
states
that
the
heating
pad
no
longer
feels
warm
enough.
What
is
the
best
response
by
the
nurse?
A.
That
means
you
have
derived
the
maximum
benefit,
and
the
heat
can
be
removed.
B.
Your
blood
vessels
are
becoming
dilated
and
removing
the
heat
from
the
site.
C.
We
will
increase
the
temperature
5
degrees
when
the
pad
no
longer
feels
warm.
D.
The
body's
receptors
adapt
over
time
as
they
are
exposed
to
heat.
-
ANS(D)
describes
thermal
adaptation,
which
occurs
20
to
30
minutes
after
heat
application.
(A
and
B)
provide
false
information.
(C)
is
not
based
on
a
knowledge
of
physiology
and
is
an
unsafe
action
that
may
harm
the
client.
Correct
Answer:
D
The
nurse
is
instructing
a
client
with
high
cholesterol
about
diet
and
life
style
modification.
What
comment
from
the
client
indicates
that
the
teaching
has
been
effective?
A.
If
I
exercise
at
least
two
times
weekly
for
one
hour,
I
will
lower
my
cholesterol.
B.
I
need
to
avoid
eating
proteins,
including
red
meat.
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