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NUCLEAR MEDICINE EXIT EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+| BRADNEW!!!!! SEPTEMBER 2023 UPDATE $18.99   Add to cart

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NUCLEAR MEDICINE EXIT EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+| BRADNEW!!!!! SEPTEMBER 2023 UPDATE

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NUCLEAR MEDICINE EXIT EXAM PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+| BRADNEW!!!!! SEPTEMBER 2023 UPDATE Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after tracer administration to an adult: A)30min B)1hr C)2-3hr D)24hr - correct answer-C)2-3hr. Stat...

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  • March 24, 2024
  • 110
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • nuclear medicine exit
  • NUCLEAR MEDICINE EXIT
  • NUCLEAR MEDICINE EXIT
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NUCLEAR MEDICINE EXIT EXAM
PRACTICE QUESTIONS WITH
DETAILED VERIFIED CORRECT
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+|
BRADNEW!!!!! SEPTEMBER 2023
UPDATE
Static bone imaging is routinely performed how long after
tracer administration to an adult: A)30min B)1hr C)2-3hr
D)24hr - correct answer-C)2-3hr. Static bone imaging
performed with a labeled diphosphonate compound is
routinely performed 2-3hr after tracer administration.

Which of the following structures normally appear as areas
of increased activity on the bone images of adults:
A)anterior iliac crests B)glenoid fossa C)sternoclavicular
joints D)all of the above - correct answer-D)all the above.
On bone images of adults, areas of normally increased
tracer activity include all those listed as well as the
sacroiliac, hip, and acromioclavicular joints and vertebral
column.

Which of the following conditions is visualized on a bone
image as a photopenic area: A)attenuation B)tracer
infiltration C)acute myocardial infarction D)osteomyelitis -

,correct answer-A)attenuation. A photopenic area is one in
which a smaller number of photons is visualized-a cold
spot. A material that absorbs photons may cause an
attenuation artifact, an area of falsely decreased tracer
concentration(jewelry, belt buckles, pacemaker)

It is safe to block a portion of the pulmonary circulation
with MAA particles in patients with suspected PE because:
A)# of injected particles block only a small number of
precapillary arterioles B)particles are made from albumin
isolated from human serum - correct answer-A)# of
injected particles blocks only a small number of
precapillary arterioles. Less than 1% of the precapillary
arterioles are blocked with the MAA particles; therefore,
there is no adverse effect on the patient.

A nebulizer is used to administer which of the following
lung ventilation radiopharmaceuticals: A)81mKr gas
B)133Xe gas C)99mTc-pentetate D)99mTc-MAA - correct
answer-C)99mTc-pentetate. A nebulizer is a device that
uses ultrasound or pressure to create airborne (aerosol)
particles from a liquid.

Which of the following radiopharmaceuticals may be used
to image acute deep vein thrombosis in the lower
extremities: A)99mTc-MAA B)99mTc-arcitumomab
C)131I-iobenguane D)111In-oxyquinoline - correct
answer-A)99mTc-MAA is used to image acute deep-vein
thrombosis in the lower extremities.

,In performing radionuclide venography with 99mTc-MAA,
the radiopharmaceutical is administered at what site:
A)antecubital of either arm B)either femoral vein C)dorsal
veins on top of each foot D)either basilic vein - correct
answer-C)dorsal vein on to of each foot. The tracer is
introduced into the deep venous system of the legs.
Therefore, the tracer is administered into the dorsal vein of
each foot.

After total thyroidectomy, total-body imaging with
radioiodine normally will demonstrate tracer concentration
in which areas: A)liver, lungs, bones B)salivary glands,
stomach, and bladder C)liver, salivary glands, stomach,
lungs D)bladder, liver, brain - correct answer-B) The
salivary glands and saliva in the mouth, the gastric
mucosa and secretions into the intestine, and the urinary
bladder are sites that normally concentrate radioiodine.
Concentrations in other sites indicate areas of functioning
thyroid metastases.

A parathyroid adenoma will concentrate which of the
following radioparmaceuticals: A)123I-sodium iodide
B)99mTc-pertechnetate C)99mTc-sestamibi D)99mTc-
pertechnetate or 99mTc-sestamibi - correct answer-
C)99mTc-sestamibi

When positioning a patient for an LAO view of a gated
equilibrium ventricular function study, tilting the camera
toward the patient's feet separates what two structures:
A)left ventricle and aorta B)left ventricle and left atrium
C)left and right atria - correct answer-B)left ventricle and

, left atrium. The left atrium is partially hidden by the aorta
and pulmonary artery. Tilting the detector caudally visually
brings the left atrium out from under these structures and
separates it from the left ventricle.

Which tracer is excreted primarily via the hepatobiliary
system: A)99mTc-sestamibi B)99mTc-exametazime
C)99mTc-medronate D)201Tl-thallous chloride - correct
answer-A)99mTc-sestamibi

A cardiac stress test requires the placement of how many
electrodes on the patient's body: A)3 B)6 C)10 D)12 -
correct answer-C)10. A cardiac stress test requires a 12-
lead ECG tracing, which uses 10 electrodes attached to
the patient. 2 arm, 2 leg, and 6 chest leads.

Visualization of bone marrow uptake on a 99mTc-sulfer
colloid liver/spleen image is most likely the result of:
A)improper colloid particle size B)insufficient tracer
circulation time C)liver dysfunction D)overactive bone
marrow - correct answer-C)liver dysfunction. Bone marrow
uptake is visualized on liver/spleen images when severe
liver dysfunction, such as advanced cirrhosis, is present.

During hepatobiliary imaging, which structure will NOT be
visualized if cystic duct obstruction is present: A)common
hepatic duct B)common bile duct C)gallbladder D)small
intestine - correct answer-C)gallbladder. If cystic duct
obstruction is present, the tracer will be unable to enter the
gallbladder. The cystic duct is the passage between the
common bile duct and the gallbladder.

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