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Psychiatric-Mental Health Practice Exam HESI/75 Q’s and A’s $16.49   Add to cart

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Psychiatric-Mental Health Practice Exam HESI/75 Q’s and A’s

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Psychiatric-Mental Health Practice Exam HESI/75 Q’s and A’s

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  • May 8, 2024
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  • 2023/2024
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Psychiatric-Mental Health Practice Exam
HESI/75 Q’s and A’s
1.
A male client with schizophrenia who is taking fluphenazine decanoate
(Prolixin decanoate) is being discharged in the morning. A repeat dose of
medication is scheduled for 20 days after discharge. The client tells the
nurse that he is going on vacation in the Bahamas and will return in 18 days.
Which statement by the client indicates a need for health teaching?
A) When I return from my tropical island vacation, I will go to the clinic to get
my Prolixin injection.
B) While I am on vacation and when I return, I will not eat or drink anything
that contains alcohol.
C) I will notify the healthcare provider if I have a sore throat or flu-like
symptoms.
D) I will continue to take my benztropine mesylate (Cogentin) every day. - -
Photosensitivity is a side effect of Prolixin and a vacation in the Bahamas
(with its tropical island climate) increases the client's chance of experiencing
this side effect. He should be instructed to avoid direct sun (A) and wear
sunscreen. (B, C, and D) indicate accurate knowledge. Alcohol acts
synergistically with Prolixin (B). (C) lists signs of agranulocytosis, which is
also a side effect of Prolixin. In order to avoid extrapyramidal symptoms
(EPS), anticholinergic drugs, such as Cogentin, are often prescribed
prophylactically with Prolixin.

Correct Answer(s): A

-2.
A male client is admitted to the mental health unit because he was feeling
depressed about the loss of his wife and job. The client has a history of
alcohol dependency and admits that he was drinking alcohol 12 hours ago.
Vital signs are: temperature, 100° F, pulse 100, and BP 142/100. The nurse
plans to give the client lorazepam (Ativan) based on which priority nursing
diagnosis?
A) Risk for injury related to suicidal ideation.
B) Risk for injury related to alcohol detoxification.
C) Knowledge deficit related to ineffective coping.
D) Health seeking behaviors related to personal crisis. - -The most important
nursing diagnosis is related to alcohol detoxification (B) because the client
has elevated vital signs, a sign of alcohol detoxification. Maintaining client
safety related to (A) should be addressed after giving the client Ativan for
elevated vital signs secondary to alcohol withdrawal. (C and D) can be
addressed when immediate needs for safety are met.

,Correct Answer(s): B

-3.
The charge nurse is collaborating with the nursing staff about the plan of
care for a client who is very depressed. What is the most important
intervention to implement during the first 48 hours after the client's
admission to the unit?
A) Monitor appetite and observe intake at meals.
B) Maintain safety in the client's milieu.
C) Provide ongoing, supportive contact.
D) Encourage participation in activities. - -The most important reason for
closely observing a depressed client immediately after admission is to
maintain safety (B), since suicide is a risk with depression. (A, C, and D) are
all important interventions, but safety is the priority.

Correct Answer(s): B

-4.
A 38-year-old female client is admitted with a diagnosis of paranoid
schizophrenia. When her tray is brought to her, she refuses to eat and tells
the nurse, "I know you are trying to poison me with that food." Which
response is most appropriate for the nurse to make?
A) I'll leave your tray here. I am available if you need anything else.
B) You're not being poisoned. Why do you think someone is trying to poison
you?
C) No one on this unit has ever died from poisoning. You're safe here.
D) I will talk to your healthcare provider about the possibility of changing
your diet. - -(A) is the best choice cited. The nurse does not argue with the
client nor demand that she eat, but offers support by agreeing to "be there if
needed", e.g., to warm the food. (B and C) are arguing with the client's
delusions, and (B) asks "why" which is usually not a good question for a
psychotic client. (D) has nothing to do with the actual problem; i.e., the
problem is not the diet (she thinks any food given to her is poisoned.)

Correct Answer(s): A

-5.
A client who is being treated with lithium carbonate for bipolar disorder
develops diarrhea, vomiting, and drowsiness. What action should the nurse
take?
A) Notify the healthcare provider immediately and prepare for administration
of an antidote.
B) Notify the healthcare provider of the symptoms prior to the next
administration of the drug.
C) Record the symptoms as normal side effects and continue administration
of the prescribed dosage.

, D) Hold the medication and refuse to administer additional amounts of the
drug. - -Early side effects of lithium carbonate (occurring with serum lithium
levels below 2.0 mEq per liter) generally follow a progressive pattern
beginning with diarrhea, vomiting, drowsiness, and muscular weakness. At
higher levels, ataxia, tinnitus, blurred vision, and large dilute urine output
may occur. (B) is the best choice. Although these are expected symptoms,
the healthcare provider should be notified prior to the next administration of
the drug. (A, C, and D) would not reflect good nursing judgment.

Correct Answer(s): B

-6.
The parents of a 14-year-old boy bring their son to the hospital. He is
lethargic, but responsive. The mother states, "I think he took some of my
pain pills." During initial assessment of the teenager, what information is
most important for the nurse to obtain from the parents?
A) If he has seemed depressed recently.
B) If a drug overdose has ever occurred before.
C) If he might have taken any other drugs.
D) If he has a desire to quit taking drugs. - -Knowledge of all substances
taken (C) will guide further treatment, such as administration of antagonists,
so obtaining this information has the highest priority. (A and B) are also
valuable in planning treatment. (D) is not appropriate during the acute
management of a drug overdose.

Correct Answer(s): C

-7.
The wife of a male client recently diagnosed with schizophrenia asks the
nurse, "What exactly is schizophrenia? Is my husband all right?" Which
response is best for the nurse to provide to this family member?
A) It sounds like you're worried about your husband. Let's sit down and talk.
B) It is a chemical imbalance in the brain that causes disorganized thinking.
C) Your husband will be just fine if he takes his medications regularly.
D) I think you should talk to your husband's psychologist about this question.
- -The nurse should answer the client's question with factual information and
explain that schizophrenia is a chemical imbalance in the brain (B). (A) is a
therapeutic response but does not answer the question, and may be an
appropriate response after the nurse answers the question asked. Although
(C) is likely true to some degree, it is also true that some clients continue to
have disorganized thinking even with antipsychotic medications. Referring
the spouse to the psychologist (D) is avoiding the issue; the nurse can and
should answer the question.

Correct Answer(s): B

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