ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
1. Spinal shock: Which type of shock causes a temporary loss of motor, sensory, and
reflex functions below the level of a lesion?
2. 27 percent: According to the rule of nines, burns of the anterior trunk and both
anterior arms account for which percentage of body surface area?
3. D.
Parasympathetic stimulation slows sinoatrial node discharge. Sympathetic
stimulation enhances atrioventricular node function, shortens His-Purkinje and
ventricular muscle refractoriness, and increases peripheral vascular re- sistance.:
Which effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
A. It increases peripheral vascular resistance.
B. It enhances atrioventricular node function.
C. It shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle refractoriness.
D.It slows sinoatrial node discharge.
4. C: Hypertension is a finding in which type of poisoning?
A. Opioid
B. Antidepressant
C. Anticholinergic
D.Organophosphate
5. B. Administer prednisone (Deltasone).: For a patient with chronic immune
thrombocytopenia, which intervention is the initial treatment?
A. Infuse intravenous immunoglobulin.
B. Administer prednisone (Deltasone).
C. Prepare the patient for a splenectomy.
D.Administer cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan).
6. D. Urethritis: For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly
administered?
7. A. Central nervous system stimulant: Rhabdomyolysis is a complication of which
type of toxicity?
A. Central nervous system stimulant
B. Opiate
C. Tricyclic antidepressant
D.Calcium channel blocker
8. Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and
defibrillate.: Which intervention is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who
has an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
, ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
9.Visceral pain: Which term defines pain caused by the stretching of a hollow organ and
is described as cramping or a sensation of gas?
10.heart and brain: When a patient is in the compensatory stage of shock, the body
preferentially maintains blood flow to which organs?
11.Below normal to slightly elevated serum glucose level: Which laboratory test result
should the nurse expect in a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?
12.Proteinuria: Which finding is characteristic of preeclampsia?
13.C. Hip: Sciatic nerve damage is associated with dislocation of which joint?
A. Patellar
B. Knee
C. Hip
D.Ankle
14.Escharotomy: Which intervention is indicated for a patient with circumferential full-
thickness burns of the chest, inadequate chest expansion, and restlessness?
15. A.
Treatment of atrial fibrillation aims to control the rapid ventricular rate with
medications, such as calcium channel blockers or beta-blockers. Calcium channel
blockers are not used to treat the other dysrhythmias listed. Acceler- ated junctional
tachycardia is a transient rhythm that only requires treatment of the underlying
disorder. Patients with second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, require careful
monitoring and may need transcutaneous pacing.
Treatment for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is magnesium sulfate and
defibrillation if the patient's condition is unstable.: Calcium channel blockers are
indicated to treat which dysrhythmia?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Accelerated junctional tachycardia
C. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
D.Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
16.B: Activated charcoal can absorb which substance?
A. Cyanide
B. Kerosene
C. Lead
D.Potassium
17.B. Cinnamon: Which herb can decrease the clotting time?
A. Evening primrose
, ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
B. Cinnamon
C. Garlic
D.Skull cap
18.D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Which medication causes urine retention?
19.B. Bradycardia: The ingestion of the foxglove plant can cause which finding?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Agitation
D.Lacrimation
20.A. Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.: For a patient with a
gunshot wound, which intervention is appropriate?
A. Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.
B. Estimate the amount of injury based on the wounds appearance.
C. Remove projectiles with Kelly clamps and place them in a sterile container.
D.Label the entrance and exits wounds.
21.Pancreatitis: Which disorder is associated with fatty, foul-smelling stool?
22.obstructive shock: Emergency needle thoracentesis is a treatment for which type of
shock
23.Tachycardia: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to find
which effect of ketoacidosis?
24.A systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg: In a pregnant patient, which
assessment finding may signal the onset of preeclampsia?
25.Atrial fibrillation: Which dysrhythmia has an irregularly irregular ventricular
response
26.It may occur at any time after spinal shock has subsided.: Which of the
following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is correct?
27.Exposure to water at 140°F (60°C): A scald burn is most likely to result from
which mechanism?
28. A.
When a patient with an implantable cardiac defibrillator requires external
defibrillation because the implanted device has malfunctioned or failed, ide- ally
place hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position. Do not wait for
the device to fire because a malfunction has occurred if ven- tricular fibrillation is
present. Cardioversion is not appropriate because no QRS complexes are present for
synchronization. Do not place the adhesive patches directly over the implantable
cardiac defibrillator.: Which intervention
, ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who has an implantable cardiac
defibrillator?
A. Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and defibril- late.
B. Wait for the device to fire.
C. Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the standard position and cardiovert.
D.Apply one hands-free adhesive patch over the device and the other on the
opposite side of the sternum and defibrillate.
29.B: Organophosphate toxicity produces which sign or symptom?
A. Constipation
B. Salivation
C. Mydriasis
D.Hot, dry skin
30.A. Obtain blood cultures.: A patient with severe neutropenia has a temperature of
100.4°F (38°C). Which intervention is indicated for this patient?
A. Obtain blood cultures.
B. Maintain respiratory isolation.
C. Administer packed red blood cells.
D.Administer antibody-purified factor IX.
31.C. Chlamydia infection: The administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) is indi-
cated for which sexually transmitted infection?
32.A. Whole bowel irrigation: Which gastric decontamination technique is most
effective for treating a patient who has swallowed cocaine-filled balloons?
A. Whole bowel irrigation
B. Activated charcoal administration
C. Gastric lavage
D.Syrup of ipecac administration
33.Apply in-line stabilization by placing hands on each side of the helmet with
fingers on the patient's mandible.: Which of the following is the first step performed
when removing a helmet from a suspected spinal injured patient?
34.D. Comminuted fracture: Which fracture results in multiple splintered bone
fragments?
A. Depressed fracture
B. Impacted fracture
Review
1. Spinal shock: Which type of shock causes a temporary loss of motor, sensory, and
reflex functions below the level of a lesion?
2. 27 percent: According to the rule of nines, burns of the anterior trunk and both
anterior arms account for which percentage of body surface area?
3. D.
Parasympathetic stimulation slows sinoatrial node discharge. Sympathetic
stimulation enhances atrioventricular node function, shortens His-Purkinje and
ventricular muscle refractoriness, and increases peripheral vascular re- sistance.:
Which effect does parasympathetic stimulation have on the heart?
A. It increases peripheral vascular resistance.
B. It enhances atrioventricular node function.
C. It shortens His-Purkinje and ventricular muscle refractoriness.
D.It slows sinoatrial node discharge.
4. C: Hypertension is a finding in which type of poisoning?
A. Opioid
B. Antidepressant
C. Anticholinergic
D.Organophosphate
5. B. Administer prednisone (Deltasone).: For a patient with chronic immune
thrombocytopenia, which intervention is the initial treatment?
A. Infuse intravenous immunoglobulin.
B. Administer prednisone (Deltasone).
C. Prepare the patient for a splenectomy.
D.Administer cyclophosphamide (Cytoxan).
6. D. Urethritis: For which disorder is phenazopyridine (Pyridium) most commonly
administered?
7. A. Central nervous system stimulant: Rhabdomyolysis is a complication of which
type of toxicity?
A. Central nervous system stimulant
B. Opiate
C. Tricyclic antidepressant
D.Calcium channel blocker
8. Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and
defibrillate.: Which intervention is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who
has an implantable cardiac defibrillator?
, ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
9.Visceral pain: Which term defines pain caused by the stretching of a hollow organ and
is described as cramping or a sensation of gas?
10.heart and brain: When a patient is in the compensatory stage of shock, the body
preferentially maintains blood flow to which organs?
11.Below normal to slightly elevated serum glucose level: Which laboratory test result
should the nurse expect in a patient with alcoholic ketoacidosis?
12.Proteinuria: Which finding is characteristic of preeclampsia?
13.C. Hip: Sciatic nerve damage is associated with dislocation of which joint?
A. Patellar
B. Knee
C. Hip
D.Ankle
14.Escharotomy: Which intervention is indicated for a patient with circumferential full-
thickness burns of the chest, inadequate chest expansion, and restlessness?
15. A.
Treatment of atrial fibrillation aims to control the rapid ventricular rate with
medications, such as calcium channel blockers or beta-blockers. Calcium channel
blockers are not used to treat the other dysrhythmias listed. Acceler- ated junctional
tachycardia is a transient rhythm that only requires treatment of the underlying
disorder. Patients with second-degree atrioventricular block, type II, require careful
monitoring and may need transcutaneous pacing.
Treatment for polymorphic ventricular tachycardia is magnesium sulfate and
defibrillation if the patient's condition is unstable.: Calcium channel blockers are
indicated to treat which dysrhythmia?
A. Atrial fibrillation
B. Accelerated junctional tachycardia
C. Second-degree atrioventricular block, type II
D.Polymorphic ventricular tachycardia
16.B: Activated charcoal can absorb which substance?
A. Cyanide
B. Kerosene
C. Lead
D.Potassium
17.B. Cinnamon: Which herb can decrease the clotting time?
A. Evening primrose
, ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
B. Cinnamon
C. Garlic
D.Skull cap
18.D. Diphenhydramine (Benadryl): Which medication causes urine retention?
19.B. Bradycardia: The ingestion of the foxglove plant can cause which finding?
A. Hypertension
B. Bradycardia
C. Agitation
D.Lacrimation
20.A. Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.: For a patient with a
gunshot wound, which intervention is appropriate?
A. Perform a neurovascular assessment of each limb.
B. Estimate the amount of injury based on the wounds appearance.
C. Remove projectiles with Kelly clamps and place them in a sterile container.
D.Label the entrance and exits wounds.
21.Pancreatitis: Which disorder is associated with fatty, foul-smelling stool?
22.obstructive shock: Emergency needle thoracentesis is a treatment for which type of
shock
23.Tachycardia: In a patient with diabetic ketoacidosis, the nurse should expect to find
which effect of ketoacidosis?
24.A systolic blood pressure greater than 140 mm Hg: In a pregnant patient, which
assessment finding may signal the onset of preeclampsia?
25.Atrial fibrillation: Which dysrhythmia has an irregularly irregular ventricular
response
26.It may occur at any time after spinal shock has subsided.: Which of the
following statements regarding autonomic dysreflexia is correct?
27.Exposure to water at 140°F (60°C): A scald burn is most likely to result from
which mechanism?
28. A.
When a patient with an implantable cardiac defibrillator requires external
defibrillation because the implanted device has malfunctioned or failed, ide- ally
place hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position. Do not wait for
the device to fire because a malfunction has occurred if ven- tricular fibrillation is
present. Cardioversion is not appropriate because no QRS complexes are present for
synchronization. Do not place the adhesive patches directly over the implantable
cardiac defibrillator.: Which intervention
, ENA Emergency Nursing Orientation 3.0 All Questions
Review
is used to treat a patient with ventricular fibrillation who has an implantable cardiac
defibrillator?
A. Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the anterior-posterior position and defibril- late.
B. Wait for the device to fire.
C. Apply hands-free adhesive patches in the standard position and cardiovert.
D.Apply one hands-free adhesive patch over the device and the other on the
opposite side of the sternum and defibrillate.
29.B: Organophosphate toxicity produces which sign or symptom?
A. Constipation
B. Salivation
C. Mydriasis
D.Hot, dry skin
30.A. Obtain blood cultures.: A patient with severe neutropenia has a temperature of
100.4°F (38°C). Which intervention is indicated for this patient?
A. Obtain blood cultures.
B. Maintain respiratory isolation.
C. Administer packed red blood cells.
D.Administer antibody-purified factor IX.
31.C. Chlamydia infection: The administration of azithromycin (Zithromax) is indi-
cated for which sexually transmitted infection?
32.A. Whole bowel irrigation: Which gastric decontamination technique is most
effective for treating a patient who has swallowed cocaine-filled balloons?
A. Whole bowel irrigation
B. Activated charcoal administration
C. Gastric lavage
D.Syrup of ipecac administration
33.Apply in-line stabilization by placing hands on each side of the helmet with
fingers on the patient's mandible.: Which of the following is the first step performed
when removing a helmet from a suspected spinal injured patient?
34.D. Comminuted fracture: Which fracture results in multiple splintered bone
fragments?
A. Depressed fracture
B. Impacted fracture
