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CARDIOLOGY FISDAP 2024 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) ALREADY GRADED A+
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CARDIOLOGY FISDAP 2024 COMPLETE QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS (VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) ALREADY GRADED A+
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CARDIOLOGY FISDAP 2024 COMPLETE QUESTIONS ANDANSWERS (VERIFIED SOLUTIONS) ALREADY GRADED A+
Question 1:
A 55-year-old male presents with chest pain radiating to his left arm and jaw.
He is diaphoretic and has a history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia. His
ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF. What is the most
likely diagnosis?
A. Acute Inferior Myocardial Infarction B. Unstable Angina C. Acute
Pericarditis D. Aortic Dissection
Answer: A. Acute Inferior Myocardial Infarction
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of chest pain radiating to the left arm and
jaw, along with diaphoresis and history of hypertension and hyperlipidemia, are
indicative of myocardial infarction. ST-segment elevation in leads II, III, and aVF
specifically suggests an inferior myocardial infarction.
Question 2:
A 68-year-old female with a history of atrial fibrillation presents with sudden
onset of palpitations and shortness of breath. Her heart rate is 140 bpm, and
her ECG shows an irregularly irregular rhythm with no distinct P waves.
What is the most appropriate initial management?
A. Rate control with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers B. Immediate
synchronized cardioversion C. Administration of adenosine D. Defibrillation
Answer: A. Rate control with beta-blockers or calcium channel blockers
Explanation: In a patient with atrial fibrillation and a rapid ventricular rate, initial
management should focus on controlling the heart rate, typically with beta-
blockers or calcium channel blockers. Synchronized cardioversion is considered if
the patient is hemodynamically unstable.
,Question 3:
A 70-year-old male with a history of coronary artery disease presents with
severe chest pain and shortness of breath. His blood pressure is 90/60 mmHg,
and his ECG shows ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads (V1-V4).
Which intervention should be performed immediately?
A. Administer aspirin and start fibrinolytic therapy B. Perform a
pericardiocentesis C. Administer nitroglycerin and morphine D. Initiate a heparin
drip
Answer: A. Administer aspirin and start fibrinolytic therapy
Explanation: The patient’s presentation is consistent with an acute anterior
myocardial infarction, indicated by ST-segment elevation in the anterior leads.
Immediate administration of aspirin and initiation of fibrinolytic therapy (or
percutaneous coronary intervention if available) are crucial to restore blood flow
and minimize myocardial damage.
Question 4:
A 50-year-old male presents with chest pain, shortness of breath, and syncope.
His blood pressure is 70/40 mmHg, and his ECG shows a wide-complex
tachycardia at 180 bpm. What is the most appropriate immediate treatment?
A. Synchronized cardioversion B. Administering amiodarone C. Performing
vagal maneuvers D. Administering atropine
Answer: A. Synchronized cardioversion
Explanation: In a hemodynamically unstable patient with a wide-complex
tachycardia, immediate synchronized cardioversion is the treatment of choice to
quickly restore a normal rhythm and stabilize the patient.
Question 5:
,A 60-year-old female with a history of heart failure presents with increasing
shortness of breath, orthopnea, and pink frothy sputum. On examination, she
has crackles throughout both lung fields and a blood pressure of 160/90
mmHg. What is the most likely diagnosis?
A. Pulmonary Embolism B. Acute Pulmonary Edema secondary to Left
Ventricular Failure C. Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)
exacerbation D. Pneumonia
Answer: B. Acute Pulmonary Edema secondary to Left Ventricular Failure
Explanation: The patient's symptoms of worsening shortness of breath, orthopnea,
and pink frothy sputum, along with physical findings of crackles in the lungs and
hypertension, are indicative of acute pulmonary edema, commonly due to left
ventricular failure.
Question 6:
A 45-year-old male presents with palpitations, dizziness, and an irregular
heartbeat. His ECG shows narrow QRS complexes and an irregularly
irregular rhythm without distinct P waves. Which condition is most likely
responsible for his symptoms?
A. Atrial Fibrillation B. Ventricular Tachycardia C. Supraventricular Tachycardia
D. Atrial Flutter
Answer: A. Atrial Fibrillation
Explanation: An ECG showing narrow QRS complexes and an irregularly
irregular rhythm without distinct P waves is characteristic of atrial fibrillation. This
condition is associated with symptoms such as palpitations and dizziness.
Question 7:
A patient with known aortic stenosis presents with exertional dyspnea, chest
pain, and syncope. On physical examination, a systolic ejection murmur is
, heard at the right second intercostal space, radiating to the carotids. What is
the definitive treatment for this condition?
A. Medical management with beta-blockers B. Aortic valve replacement C.
Balloon valvuloplasty D. Percutaneous coronary intervention
Answer: B. Aortic valve replacement
Explanation: Aortic stenosis with symptoms of exertional dyspnea, chest pain,
and syncope, along with a characteristic systolic ejection murmur, often requires
aortic valve replacement as the definitive treatment to alleviate symptoms and
improve survival.
Question 8:
A 65-year-old male presents with crushing chest pain, nausea, and
diaphoresis. His ECG shows ST-segment elevation in leads V2-V4. His
troponin levels are elevated. Which of the following is a contraindication to
fibrinolytic therapy in this patient?
A. History of peptic ulcer disease B. Recent ischemic stroke within the past
three months C. Controlled hypertension D. Previous coronary artery bypass
grafting
Answer: B. Recent ischemic stroke within the past three months
Explanation: A recent ischemic stroke within the past three months is a
contraindication to fibrinolytic therapy due to the increased risk of intracranial
hemorrhage. Other options do not contraindicate fibrinolytic therapy in the context
of acute myocardial infarction.
Question 9:
A 75-year-old female with a history of hypertension and diabetes presents
with sudden onset of severe headache, confusion, and left-sided weakness. Her
blood pressure is 220/110 mmHg. What is the most appropriate initial
diagnostic test?
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