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RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2025 with 50 Questions from Actual Past Exam, Correct Answers and Rationale (best answers) $17.99
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RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2025 with 50 Questions from Actual Past Exam, Correct Answers and Rationale (best answers)

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RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam 2025 with 50 Questions from Actual Past Exam, Correct Answers and Rationale (best answers)

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  • June 8, 2024
  • December 16, 2024
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RN ATI Comprehensive Predictor Exit Exam
2025 with 50 Questions from Actual Past
Exam, Correct Answers and Rationale

1. A nurse is caring for a client who is prescribed furosemide for heart failure.
Which of the following findings indicates the medication is effective?
A. Increased heart rate
B. Decreased respiratory rate
C. Increased urine output
D. Decreased temperature
Answer: C. Increased urine output
Rationale: Furosemide is a loop diuretic that promotes diuresis by inhibiting
sodium and chloride reabsorption in the kidneys. Increased urine output indicates
the drug's effectiveness in reducing fluid overload associated with heart failure.


2. A nurse is teaching a client about the use of an incentive spirometer following
abdominal surgery. Which of the following instructions should the nurse
include?
A. "Exhale forcefully into the mouthpiece."
B. "Use the spirometer every 8 hours."
C. "Hold your breath for 3-5 seconds after inhaling."
D. "Breathe in and out quickly through the device."
Answer: C. "Hold your breath for 3-5 seconds after inhaling."
Rationale: Holding the breath after inhaling deeply allows for maximum expansion
of the alveoli, reducing the risk of atelectasis and promoting effective lung
function post-surgery.




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,3. A nurse is monitoring a client who has a urinary tract infection and is
receiving ciprofloxacin. Which of the following findings should the nurse report
to the provider?
A. Nausea
B. Photosensitivity
C. Tendon pain
D. Mild headache
Answer: C. Tendon pain
Rationale: Ciprofloxacin is associated with the risk of tendon rupture. Tendon pain
should be reported immediately, as it may indicate early signs of tendonitis or
rupture.


4. A nurse is providing discharge teaching to a client with a new prescription for
warfarin. Which of the following statements indicates a need for further
teaching?
A. "I will use an electric razor for shaving."
B. "I will eat more green leafy vegetables to boost my vitamin K levels."
C. "I will notify my provider if I notice unusual bleeding or bruising."
D. "I will avoid taking aspirin while on this medication."
Answer: B. "I will eat more green leafy vegetables to boost my vitamin K levels."
Rationale: Foods high in vitamin K, such as green leafy vegetables, can interfere
with the effectiveness of warfarin. Clients should maintain a consistent intake of
vitamin K to avoid fluctuations in INR levels.


5. A nurse is caring for a client who has a new diagnosis of type 1 diabetes
mellitus. Which of the following findings is an expected manifestation of this
condition?
A. Weight gain
B. Bradycardia
C. Polyuria
D. Hyperpigmentation

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,Answer: C. Polyuria
Rationale: Polyuria (excessive urination) occurs in type 1 diabetes due to osmotic
diuresis caused by hyperglycemia. Other manifestations include polydipsia and
polyphagia.


6. A nurse is performing wound care for a client with a stage III pressure ulcer.
Which of the following interventions should the nurse implement?
A. Use hydrogen peroxide to cleanse the wound.
B. Pack the wound with a moist-to-dry dressing.
C. Apply a transparent film dressing.
D. Administer antibiotics directly into the wound.
Answer: B. Pack the wound with a moist-to-dry dressing.
Rationale: A moist-to-dry dressing promotes wound healing by keeping the
wound bed moist and aiding in the removal of necrotic tissue during dressing
changes.


7. A nurse is preparing to administer digoxin to a client. Which of the following
assessments should the nurse perform prior to administration?
A. Check blood pressure.
B. Measure oxygen saturation.
C. Monitor respiratory rate.
D. Check the apical pulse.
Answer: D. Check the apical pulse.
Rationale: Digoxin can cause bradycardia, so the nurse must check the apical
pulse for a full minute before administration. The medication should be withheld
if the pulse is below 60 beats per minute.


8. A nurse is caring for a client who has a sodium level of 128 mEq/L. Which of
the following findings should the nurse expect?



3

, A. Dry, flaky skin
B. Hyperactive reflexes
C. Abdominal cramping
D. Hypertension
Answer: C. Abdominal cramping
Rationale: A sodium level of 128 mEq/L indicates hyponatremia, which commonly
causes symptoms such as abdominal cramping, headache, nausea, and confusion.


9. A nurse is teaching a group of clients about health promotion strategies.
Which of the following activities is an example of primary prevention?
A. Blood pressure screening
B. Immunizations
C. Cardiac rehabilitation
D. Chemotherapy
Answer: B. Immunizations
Rationale: Primary prevention involves actions to prevent disease before it occurs,
such as immunizations and health education.


10. A nurse is caring for a client who reports difficulty falling asleep. Which of
the following actions should the nurse recommend?
A. Take a long nap during the day.
B. Drink a cup of coffee before bedtime.
C. Establish a regular bedtime routine.
D. Exercise vigorously before going to bed.
Answer: C. Establish a regular bedtime routine.
Rationale: A consistent bedtime routine helps regulate the body's circadian
rhythm and promotes better sleep hygiene. Avoiding stimulants and vigorous
exercise before bed is also recommended.




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