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APEA PRE-PREDICTOR NP EXAM LATEST ACTUAL EXAM 150+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ALREADY GRADED A+ NEWEST

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APEA PRE-PREDICTOR NP EXAM LATEST ACTUAL EXAM 150+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS/ALREADY GRADED A+ NEWEST

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  • July 14, 2024
  • 191
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • apea pre predictor np exam latest
  • apea pre predictor np exam latest actual
  • apea pre predictor np exam latest actual
  • apea pre predictor np exam latest actual

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APEA PRE-PREDICTOR NP EXAM LATEST 2023-2024
ACTUAL EXAM 150+ QUESTIONS AND CORRECT
ANSWERS/ALREADY GRADED A+ NEWEST

All of the following services are covered under Medicare Part A except:

A) Inpatienthospitalizations
B) Medicines administered to a patient while hospitalized
C) Nursing home care
D) Surgeons - C) Nursing home care

Medicare A coverage includes inpatient hospitalization and skilled care given in a
certified skilled nursing facility. Most nursing home care is custodial care (help with
bathing, dressing, using a bathroom, and eating). This care is not covered by Medicare
A.

A 28-year-old student is seen in the school health clinic with complaints of a hacking
cough that is productive of small amounts of sputum and a runny nose. He does not
take any medications, denies any allergies, and has no significant medical history.
Physical examination reveals a low-grade temperature of 99.9 degrees Fahrenheit,
respirations of 16/min, a pulse of 90 beats per minute, and diffuse fine crackles in the
base of the lungs. A chest radiograph (x-ray) shows diffuse infiltrates on the lower lobe
of the right lung. The total white blood cell count is 10,500/uL. What is the most likely
diagnosis?

A) Streptococcal pneumonia
B) Mycoplasma pneumonia
C) Acute bronchitis
D) Legionnaires disease - B) Mycoplasma pneumonia

Mycoplasma pneumonia is the organism most com- monly seen in children and young
adults. It is easily spread from droplets, from sneezing and coughing, in close proximity.
Diagnosis is based on symptoms and x-ray results of infiltrates in lower lobes.

A 39-year-old migrant worker presents to the clinic 2.5 days after a purified protein
derivative (PPD) test. What minimum size of induration would be considered posi- tive
for this patient?

A) 3 mm B) 5 mm C) 10 mm D) 15 mm - C) 10 mm

The PPD is administered on the volar aspect of the lower arm and read 48 hours after
the test is given. The PPD result must have induration and measure 10 mm or greater
to be positive in a low-risk patient. Induration (firmness with palpation) must be present.

,If the site has erythema but no induration, result would be negative. Color is not
important.

All of the following are correct statements regarding the role of the person named in a
durable power of attorney except:

A) The agent's decisions are legally binding
B) The agent can make decisions in other areas of the patient's life such as financial
issues
C) The agent can decide for the patient who is on life support when that life support
can be terminated
D) The patient's spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions - D) The patient's
spouse has a right to override the agent's decisions

The person named in a durable power of attorney (the agent) is designated by the
patient to make all medical decisions, as well as any decisions regarding the patient's
private affairs in the event that the patient becomes incompetent and unable to make
his/her own decisions. No one has the ability to override the agent's decision.

All of the following are true statements regarding Munchausen syndrome except:

A) It is considered a mental illness
B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety reaction and denial
C) The patient fakes an illness in order to gain attention from health care providers
D) The patient has an inconsistent medical history along with a past history of
frequent hospitalizations - B) The patient has a medical illness that causes an anxiety
reaction and denial

Munchausen syndrome is a psychiatric disorder in which the patient fakes a medical
illness or disorder to gain attention from health care provid- ers. These patients
commonly use the emergency department frequently to gain attention.

Which of the following antihypertensive medications should the nurse practitioner avoid
when treating patients with emphysema?

A) Calcium channel blockers
B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors
C) Beta-blockers
D) Diuretics - C) Beta-blockers

Beta-blockers should be avoided in patients with a history of emphysema. Studies have
shown evidence of a reduction in forced expiratory volume in 1 second (FEV1),
increased airway hyperresponsiveness, and inhibition of bronchodilator response to
beta agonists in patients receiving non-selective beta- blockers and high doses of
cardioselective beta-blockers.

,A 72-year-old woman has been on hydrochlorothiazide 12.5 mg for many years to
control her Stage II hypertension. Her blood pressure (BP) at this visit is 168/96. She is
currently complaining of pain on her right hip and on both knees. She has increased her
dose of ibuprofen (Motrin) from 400 mg 3 times day (TID) to 800 mg TID. She is still in
pain and would like something stronger. Which of the following statements is the best
explanation of the effects of ibuprofen (Motrin) on her disease?

A) It increases the chances of adverse effects to her health
B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic
C) It prolongs the therapeutic effects of hydrochlorothiazide and other diuretics
D) None of the statements are true - B) It inhibits the effect of renal prostaglandins and
blunts the effectiveness of the diuretic.

NSAIDs and ASA inhibit the vasodilatory effects of prostaglandins, which predisposes
the kidney to ischemia. NSAIDs and diuretics can cause acute prerenal failure by
decreasing renal blood flow.

2. All of the following are infections that affect mostly the labia and vagina except:

A) Bacterialvaginosis
B) Candidiasis
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Chlamydia trachomatis - D) Chlamydia trachomatis

Infections that commonly affect the labia and vagina include bacterial vaginosis,
candidiasis, and trichomoniasis. Chlamydia trachomatis commonly affects the cervix,
endometrial lining , fallopian tubes, and pelvic cavity.

The nurse practitioner would test the obturator and iliopsoas muscle to evaluate for:

A) Cholecystitis
B) Acute appendicitis
C) Inguinal hernia
D) Gastriculcer - B) Acute appendicitis.

Signs and symptoms of an acute abdomen include invol- untary guarding, rebound
tenderness, boardlike abdomen, and a positive obtu- rator and psoas sign. A positive
obturator sign occurs when pain is elicted by internal rotation of the right hip from 90
degrees hip/knee flexion. The psoas sign is positive when pain occurs with passive
extension of the thigh while the patient is lying on his/her side with knees extended, or
when pain occurs with active flexion of his/her thigh at the hip.

Treatment for mild preeclampsia includes all of the following except:

A) Bed rest except for bathroom privileges
B) Close monitoring of weight and blood pressure

, C) Close follow-up of urinary protein, serum creatinine, and platelet count
D) A prescription of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure - D) A prescription
of methyldopa (Aldomet) to control blood pressure

Recommended care for women diagnosed with preeclampsia includes bed rest with
bath- room privileges, weight and BP monitoring, and closely following urine protein and
serum protein, creatinine, and platelet counts. Oral medications are not used as first-line
treatment.


A 30-year-old chef complains of pruritic hives over her chest and arms but denies
difficulty swallowing or breathing. She reports a family history of allergic rhinitis and
asthma. Which of the following interventions is most appropriate?

A) Perform a complete and thorough history
B) Prescribe an oral antihistamine such as diphenhydramine 25 mg PO QID
C) Give an injection of epinephrine 1:1000 intramuscularly stat
D) Call 911 - A) Perform a complete and thorough history

Prior to prescribing medications, a complete and thorough history must be performed to
determine possible causes of hives. The patient denied difficulty with swallowing and
breathing, so there was no medical emergency to require calling 911.

Which of the following findings is most likely in young primigravidas with pregnancy-
induced hypertension?

A) Abdominal cramping and constipation
B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities
C) Shortness of breath
D) Dysuria and frequency - B) Edema of the face and the upper extremities

Common signs and symptoms of pregnancy-induced hypertension include edema of the
face and the upper extremities, weight gain, blurred vision, elevated BP, proteinuria,
and headaches.

Which of the following symptoms is associated with B12 deficiency anemia?

A) Spoon-shaped nails and pica
B) An abnormal neurological exam
C) A vegan diet
D) Tingling and numbness of both feet - D) Tingling and numbness of both feet

Vitamin B12 deficiency anemia can cause nerve cell damage if not treated. Symptoms
of B12 deficiency anemia may include tingling or numbness in fingers and toes, difficulty
walking, mood changes or depression, memory loss, disorientation, and dementia.

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