Final exam for PATHOPHYSIOLOG.
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Which patient with a fracture will the nurse prioritize?
A) A patient who is complaining of pain of 6 on a scale of 1 to 10
B) A patient who complains of numbness in their extremity.
C) A patient whose affected extremity is red
D) A patient who complains of being cold
Answer: Ans: A patient who complains of numbness in their extremity
2.
What is the priority assessment in a myasthenia crisis?
Answer: In a myasthenia crisis, the priority assessment is the airway, as the disease affects the muscles of the body and can lead to respiratory complications.
3.
What are the symptoms associated with BPH (Benign Prostatic Hyperplasia)?
Answer: The symptoms of BPH include the inability to pass urine effectively, difficulty initiating a stream of urine, decreased urine output, and a sense of urgency. These symptoms are related to the enlargement of the prostate gland, which can obstruct the flow
4.
Function of the endoplasmic reticulum?
Answer: the endoplasmic reticulum can either be smooth or rough, and in general its function is to produce proteins for the rest of the cell to function
5.
What is the primary cause of respiratory distress syndrome?
Answer: Respiratory distress syndrome is primarily caused by hypoxemia, which is a condition characterized by low oxygen levels in the blood
6.
Which of the following infections would increase risk for cancer development in the genital region?
Answer: Human papillomavirus
7.
When assessing a woman with possible gonorrhea in the public health clinic, the nurse learns that the patient has the following symptoms. Which symptom is of most concern?
Answer: Abdominal tenderness
8.
Which sexually transmitted diseases are vaginal infections?
Answer: Chlamydia
Gonorrhea
9.
Multiple myeloma is a malignancy of the?
Answer: plasma cells
10.
While in the hospital for management of acute lymphocytic leukemia (ALL), J.B.\'s neutrophil count is 175. The most appropriate action for this condition would be:
Answer: minimizing visitors
Content preview
7/20/24, 8:37 PM Final exam for PATHOPHYSIOLOG
1. Which is the best way to prevent spinal cord injuries?
A. Stabilization to prevent further trauma to the spinal cord
B. Moving the client’s neck and spine to maintain mobility
C. Administering antibiotics to prevent invasion of bacteria
D. Having the client bear weight immediately after injury
2. Which of the following are clinical manifestations of left-sided heart failure? (select all that
apply)
A. Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea
B. Crackles auscultated in the lungs
C. Jugular venous distention
D. Peripheral edema
E. Cough with frothy sputum
3. Which of the following symptoms would the nurse expect to find in a client with a concussion?
(select all that apply.)
A. Vomiting
B. Emotional disturbances
C. Nausea
D. Increased level of consciousness
E. Headache
4. Which of the following statements are true regarding syphilis? (select all that apply.)
A. It can cause damage to the central nervous system and cause blindness,paresis, and
mental deterioration
B. It is caused by an anaerobic spirochete
C. In severe cases, it can cause problems with the cardiovascular system and aortic
necrosis
D. It is caused by the human immunodeficiency virus (HIV)
E. Syphilis is only communicable during the secondary stage
5. A nurse is educating a client on how to prevent squamous cell carcinoma. Which of the
following is an appropriate method of prevention?
A. Do not use sunscreen when it is cloudy
B. Do not reapply sunscreen after prolonged outdoor activities
C. Avoid wearing hats at all times
D. Apply sunscreen when engaging in outdoor activities
6. The nurse expects to assess which symptom in a client with atopic dermatitis?
A. Polyphagia
B. Leprosy
C. Abdominal pain
D. Pruritus
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7. Which of the following is the cause of frequent urination associated with benign prostatic
hypertrophy (BPH)?
A. Increased volume of dilute urine
B. Irritation of the bladder and urethra
C. Impaired micturition reflex
D. Incomplete emptying of the bladder
8. The client with pelvic inflammatory disease (PID) from gonorrhea asks how this can cause
sterility. Which of the following is the best response from the nurse?
A. “The infection causes such damage to the cervix that it cannot contain a pregnancy
inside the uterus for more than 3 months.”
B. “The infection remains in your body and can infect your baby, so it is best if you don’t
become pregnant.”
C. “The infection damages the ovary so that less estrogen is secreted, and ovulation is not
possible.”
D. “If the infection is present in the fallopian tubes and can cause enough scarring to block
the tubes permanently.”
9. Which of the following clients would be most at risk for an intestinal obstruction?
A. An individual diagnosed with cirrhosis of the liver
B. An individual eating a low-fiber, high-fat diet
C. An individual who smokes and consumes large amounts of caffeine
D. An elderly individual on bedrest because of post-operative abdominal surgery
10. Which type of hepatitis is commonly transferred via the fecal-oral route?
A. Hepatitis D
B. Hepatitis B
C. Hepatitis A (Carlos)
D. Hepatitis C
11. Which of the following properties are found in clients with metastatic cancer?
A. Cells that are genetically stable
B. Tumors that are well encapsulated
C. Tumors with slow, stable growth
D. Cells that invade local tissue and overrun neighboring cells
12. Which of the following is an elderly common symptom of cancer?
A. Diarrhea
B. Sudden weight gain
C. Fatigue
D. Muscle hypertrophy
13. Anemia can be caused by all the following except which?
A. A decrease in production of red blood cells
B. Increased red blood cell destruction
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C. Hereditary causes
D. Increase in the clotting cascade
14. Which of the following is a compensatory mechanism for individuals with anemia?
A. Tachycardia
B. Increased platelet production
C. Peripheral vasodilation
D. Decreased red blood cell production
15. Which of the following is a goal when treating anemia?
A. Reduce the client’s hemoglobin and hematocrit levels
B. Improve tissue oxygenation
C. Increased carbon dioxide levels in the bloodstream
D. Reduce oxygen toxicity
16. Which of the following is a cancer of the plasma cells that most often affects older adults?
A. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
B. Leukemia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Hodgkins lymphoma
17. Which of the following conditions is characterized by malignant granulocytes that carry a
unique chromosomal abnormality?
A. Chronic myeloid leukemia
B. Melanoma
C. Hodgkins lymphoma
D. Non-Hodgkins lymphoma
18. Which of the following explains why individuals with acute leukemia are at risk for
opportunistic infections?
A. Decreased appetite and nutritional intake
B. Many nonfunctional immature leukocytes
C. Marked elevation of white blood cells
D. Severe anemia and increased risk of bleeding
19. The nurse notes that the client needs further education regarding the Epstein-Barr Virus and
mononucleosis when they state which of the following?
A. “I should be able to go play football in a couple of days.”
B. “I will try my best to stay on top of my fluid intake.”
C. “It is okay for me to take antipyretics for my fever.”
D. “I should take it easy when I get home and get plenty of rest.”
20. Acute chest pain syndrome, a potentially life-threatening condition that causes chest pain,
coughing, dyspnea and fever, is associated with which of the following disorders?
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A. Hemophilia
B. Iron deficiency anemia
C. Sickle cell disease
D. Epstein-Barr virus
21. A 52-year-old man presents to the clinic complaining of back pain. The x-rays reveal
multiple areas of reduced bone density and a compression fracture of the vertebra. His lab work
revealed elevated serum calcium levels. Which of the following diseases is the most consistent
with these findings?
A. Sickle cell disease
B. Leukemia
C. Multiple myeloma
D. Lymphoma
22. Valve stenosis results in which of the following alterations in blood flow through the heart?
A. Blood flows backward across the valve, causing rupture of the heart chambers
B. Blood flows backward across the valve because it does not close fully
C. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve because it does not open fully
D. Blood is unable to flow easily out of the valve due to a problem with the papillary muscle
23. Cardiac tamponade is a condition in which a large amount of fluid accumulates around the
heart and impedes which of the following?
A. Contraction of the heart during systole
B. Electrical conduction through the myocardium
C. Stretching and filling of the heart during diastole
D. Systemic vascular resistance
24. Which of the following is a cause of cardiogenic shock?
A. Pulmonary embolism
B. Allergic reaction
C. Spinal cord injury
D. Myocardial infarction
25. A client is diagnosed with hypertension with no identifiable cause. This type of hypertension
is known as which of the following?
A. Primary hypertension
B. Tertiary hypertension
C. Secondary hypertension
D. Malignant hypertension
26. Which type of cardiomyopathy causes an enlarged, floppy ventricular heart muscle?
A. Hypertrophic
B. Dilated
C. Restrictive
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