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ATLS POST TEST NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+ $22.99
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ATLS POST TEST NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+
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ATLS POST TEST NEWEST 2024 ACTUAL EXAM COMPLETE 100 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT DETAILED ANSWERS (VERIFIED ANSWERS) |ALREADY GRADED A+

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  • July 23, 2024
  • 31
  • 2023/2024
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • atls post test newest 2024 actual exam

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  • ATLS POST
  • ATLS POST

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PHTLS Pre & Post Test, ATLS exam

1. The displacement of tissue away from the path of B. Cavitation
a projectile, both temporarily and permanently, is
known as:

A. Conization
B. Cavitation
C. Crepitation
D. Contusion

2. The single most important factor in determining the B. Velocity of the
potential for injury due to energy exchange is: bodies involved

A. Mass of the bodies involved
B. Velocity of the bodies involved
C. Density of the tissues involved
D. Surface area of the impact involved

3. In the management of shock, isotonic crystalloid C. These solutions
solutions, such as Ringer's, are preferred because: will stay in the vas-
cular space longer
A. The protein molecules in crystalloid solutions act than water solu-
as volume expanders tions, such as D5W
B. These fluids draw interstitial fluid into the vascu-
lar space to enhance volume
C. These solutions will stay in the vascular space
longer than water solutions, such as D5W
D. Their pH enhance oxygen delivery to the tissues

4. With respect to the distance of a fall, which of the A. 3 times the height
following is a guideline for determining a critical of the patient
fall?

A. 3 times the height of the patient
B. 2 times the height of the patient
C. 5 times the height of the patient
D. 1 ½ times the height of the patient

5. The phase of an explosion, or blast, in which hollow D. Primary phase
organs are squeezed and may rupture is called the


, PHTLS Pre & Post Test, ATLS exam

__________ phase.

A. Tertiary phase
B. Quaternary phase
C. Secondary phase
D. Primary phase

6. During the primary survey and management of C. Expose/Environ-
a trauma patient, the E in ABCDE stands for ment
_________?

A. Edema
B. Eyes & ears
C. Expose/Environment
D. Electrical therapy

7. The time in which surgical intervention can make a A. Golden period
difference in patient outcome is the __________? (hour)

A. Golden period
B. Golden time
C. Golden era
D. Golden minutes

8. In the absence of extenuating circumstances, the B. 10 minutes
maximum amount of time it should take to identi-
fy and manage immediate threats to life, prepare
the patient for transport and begin transport is
_________?

A. 5 minutes
B. 10 minutes
C. 15 minutes
D. 30 minutes

9. In which of the following situations is the use of a D. None of the
short spinal immobilization device indicated? above

A. 28 year old male, unrestrained driver in a frontal
impact crash. Awake, asks repeatedly what hap-


, PHTLS Pre & Post Test, ATLS exam

pened, complains of a headache, has a hematoma
on his forehead. BP 122/84, HR 92, VR 20.
B. 40 year old female who was pushed down a flight
of stairs and is lying prone on the landing between
two flights of stairs, complaining of back pain. BP
118/78, HR 100, VR 20.
C. 17 year old female, restrained driver in a frontal
impact crash. Awake, pale and diaphoretic, com-
plains of upper right quadrant abdominal pain. BP
100/70, HR 108, VR 20. D. None of the above

10. Your patient is a 32 year old man, restrained driver B. Prior to being re-
of a vehicle that has been involved in a frontal im- moved from the ve-
pact with a concrete bridge abutment. The patient hicle
is awake, but has difficulty answering questions
due to shortness of breath. His ventilatory rate is
30 per minute. Of the following choices, when is
the first time the patient's breath sounds should be
checked?

A. As soon as he is removed from the vehicle
B. Prior to being removed from the vehicle
C. As soon as he is immobilized on a long back-
board
D. Enroute to the trauma center

11. Which of the following represents adequate sponta- D. Tidal volume 600
neous ventilation in an adult? mL, ventilatory rate
12/minute
A. Tidal volume 100 mL, ventilatory rate 40/minute
B. Tidal volume 500 mL, ventilatory rate 8/minute
C. Tidal volume 300 mL, ventilatory rate 16/minute
D. Tidal volume 600 mL, ventilatory rate 12/minute

12. Which of the following is 100% accurate in verifying D. None of the
endotracheal tube placement? above....(added info
by ang: to veri-
A. Pulse oximetry fy you need breath
B. End-tidal capnometry sounds, condensa-



, PHTLS Pre & Post Test, ATLS exam

C. Syringe aspiration tion in the tube
D. None of the above and a confirmatory
CXR)

13. When utilizing percutaneous transtracheal ventila- A. 1:4
tion, the correct ration of lung inflation to lung infla-
tion time, in seconds, is:

A. 1:4
B. 1:5
C. 1:2
D. 2:2

14. Which of the following is a possible complication of D. All of the above
using a manually triggered oxygen powered device
for ventilation?

A. Gastric distention
B. Pneumothorax
C. Inability to feel lung compliance
D. All of the above

15. Which of the following procedures is considered an C. Insertion of an
essential airway skill? oropharyngeal air-
way
A. Needle cricothyroidotomy
B. Endotracheal intubation
C. Insertion of an oropharyngeal airway
D. Retrograde endotracheal intubation

16. Pericardial tamponade is most likely to occur in A. Stab wound to
which of the following situations? the chest

A. Stab wound to the chest
B. Fall from a height
C. Frontal impact vehicle crash
D. Gunshot wound to the chest

17. Which of the following is the preferred site for nee- C. 2nd intercostal
dle decompression of a tension pneumothorax? space, midclavicu-

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