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D115 - OA readiness Assessment 2024 with complete solution
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D115 - OA readiness Assessment 2024 with complete solution
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D115 - OA readiness Assessment 2024 with completesolution
What is the most common indication for genetic counseling?
A) maternal age
B) drug exposure during the first trimester?
C) Increased maternal alpha-fetoprotein
D) history of previous still birth - ANSWERA) maternal age
The largest group of women who benefit from genetic counseling are those over the age
of 35
The FNP schedules a 38-year-old primigravida (first time pregnancy) for an
amniocentesis at 16 weeks gestation. The FNP would explain that the purpose of this
procedure is to:
A) Assess for the possibility of twins
B) Deterime the biliruben level
C) Perform genetic studies
D) Assess L/S ratio - ANSWERC) Perform genetic studies
This womans age puts her at risk for Down Syndrome
In the most commonly seen form of Turner Syndrome, how is the X chromosome
affected?
A) Each cell has only one X chromosome?
B) Some cells have two X chromsomes, while the other cells have only one.
C) Each cell has two X chromsomes, but part of the chromosome is missing.
D) Each cell has an extra X chromosome - ANSWERA) Each cell has only one X
chromsome
45% of persons with Turner Syndrome have monosomy X meaning there is only one
copy of the X chromosome in each cell.
The FNP is assessing a newborn who is demonstrating a high-pitched cry,
microcephaly, hypertelorism, hypotonia, and a low birth weight. The FNP would suspect
which of the following genetic conditions?
A) Down Syndrome
B) Cri du chat
C) Charge syndrome
D) Duncan disease - ANSWERB) Cri du chat
The clinical symptoms of cri du chat syndrome usually include a high-pitched cat-like
cry, mental retardation, delayed development, distinctive facial features, small head size
(microcephaly), widely-spaced eyes (hypertelorism), low birth weight and weak muscle
tone (hypotonia) in infancy.
,When explaining the types of adaptive immunity, the FNP student is aware that:
A) Adaptive immunity is a cell-mediated immune response which is
B) Adaptive immunity is the level of immunity that all persons are born with.
C) Adaptive immunity occurs when antibodies are passed from the mother to the fetus.
D) Adaptive immunity occurs through immunization. - ANSWERA) Adaptive immunity is
a cell-mediated immune response which is carried out by T cells and B cells.
There are two types of adaptive immunity responses: the cell-mediated immune
response, which is carried out by T cells, and the humoral immune response, which is
controlled by activated B cells and antibodies.
A woman has sustained a traumatic brain injury. She is able to follow simple commands
and can manipulate objects. Which term describes this state?
A) Coma
B) Persistent vegetative state
C) Minimally conscious
D) Locked-in syndrome - ANSWERC) Minimally conscious
When responses to the environment are seen, the patient is said to be in a minimally
conscious state
Age and the admission of the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) are important diagnostic
factors in TBI. Which GCS score describes a severe TBI?
A) 13-15
B) 12-13
C) 9-12
D) 3-8 - ANSWERD) 3-8
The GCS is scored between 3 and 15, 3 being the worst and 15 the best.
Which term describes recurrent, intrusive thoughts or impulses?
A) Hallucinations
B) Compulsions
C) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
D) Delusions - ANSWERC) Obsessions
Obsessions are recurrent and persistent thoughts, impulses, or images that cause
distressing emotions such as anxiety or disgust.
During an intake interview with a 26-year-old man diagnosed with generalized anxiety
disorder, the FNP might observe what type of behavior?
A) An inflated sense of self
B) Constant relation to future events
C) Inability to concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
D) Nervousness and fear of the FNP during the interview - ANSWERC) Inability to
concentrate and irritability when questioned
Impaired concentration and irritability are major characteristics of GAD.
,The FNP would expect which symptoms in a patient with a diagnosis of schizophrenia?
A) High energy with varying sleep patterns and non stop conversation.
B) Extreme and frequent mood swings with hyperactivity and difficulty concentrating.
C) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
D) Anti-social behavior, manipulative behavior, charisma, and ability to lie convincingly.
- ANSWERC) Paranoia, delusions, hallucinations, and diminished self-care.
The characteristics of schizophrenia are paranoia, delusions, tangential thoughts,
suspiciousness, disorganized behavior, and hallucinations.
The FNP is seeing a 10 year old child with complaints of otalgia and muffled hearing.
The mother states the child recently recovered from an upper respiratory infection. The
FNP suspects that this child has:
A) Acute otitis media
B) Acute otitis externa
C) Cholesteatoma
D) Chronic otitis media - ANSWERA) Acute otitis media
The classic presentation of otitis media is otalgia, muffled hearing, popping sensation,
and a recent history of a cold or flare up of allergic rhinitis.
The FNP understands that a potential complication of tonsillar infections, which is
characterized by severe sore throat, difficulty swallowing, odynophagia, trismus, and a
"hot potato" voice; accompanied by fever, chills and malaise is indicative of:
A) Retropharyngeal abscess
B) Epiglotitis
C) Peritonsillar cellulitis
D) Peritonsillar abscess - ANSWERD) Peritonsillar abscess
Peritonsillar abscess is characterized by severe sore throat, pain or difficulty
swallowing, jaw muscle spasms, and a hot potato voice.
A young adult female patient presents to the clinic with complaints of nervousness,
tremulousness, palpitations, heat intolerance, fatigue, weight loss, and polyphagia. After
a complete history and physical, along with thyroid function tests, the FNP makes the
diagnosis of hyperthyroidism, recognizing that the most common cause of this condition
is:
A) Thyroid cancer
B) Graves' disease
C) Pituitary adenoma
D) Postpartum thyroiditis - ANSWERB) Graves' disease
Graves' disease, an autoimmune condition also known as "diffuse toxic goiter" is the
most common cause of hyperthyroidism in this age group.
During an evaluation of a patient with prediabetes, the FNP identifies which finding in
the patient's objective data that is associated with the increasing insulin resistance?
A) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
B) HDL > 40 mg/dL in men and >50 mg/dL in women
, C) BP < 130/85 mm Hg
D) FBS < 110 mg/dL - ANSWERA) Triglycerides > 150mg/dL
Improper use of glucose increases the release of free fatty acids which elevates
triglycerides.
When prescribing a meal plan for the patient with type 2 diabetes, the FNP tells the
patient that the macronutrient with the most influence on the postprandial glucose level
is:
A) Fiber
B) Fat
C) Protein
D) Carbohydrate - ANSWERD) Carbohydrate
Carbohydrate is a macronutrient with the greatest impact on the postprandial glucose
levels.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 1 diabetes mellitus?
A) Significant hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
B) This condition is commonly diagnoses on routine examination or work-up for other
health problems.
C) Initial response to oral sulfonylureas is usually favorable.
D) Insulin resistance is a significant part of the diease. - ANSWERA) Significant
hyperglycemia and ketoacidosis result from a lack of insulin.
Type 1 DM is associated with beta cell destruction leading to absolute insulin deficiency
resulting in significant hyperglycemia and potential for ketoacidosis.
Which of the following characteristics applies to type 2 diabetes mellitus?
A) Major risk factors are heredity and obesity
B) Pear-shaped body type is commonly found
C) Exogenous insulin is needed for control of the disease
D) Physical activity increases insulin resistance - ANSWERA) Major risk factors are
heredity and obesity
Risk factors of type 2 DM include increasing age, obesity, race, and genetics.
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for endometrial cancer?
A) Obesity
B) Oral contraceptive use
C) Unopposed estrogen use
D) Advancing age, greater than 50 years - ANSWERB) Oral contraceptive use
Oral contraceptives have been shown to reduce the incidence of endometrial cancer.
The FNP understands the the most accurate explanation for the diagnosis of mixed
precocious puberty is:
A) When a child develops some secondary sex characteristics of the opposite sex.
B) When a child does not develop any identifiable external sex organs.
C) When early puberty occurs due to multiple, integrated causative effects.
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