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NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS$26.49
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NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
An 18-year-old client is admitted with a closed head injury sustained in a MVA. His
intracranial
A client with a subarachnoid hemorrhage is prescribed a 1,000-mg loading dose of Dilantin
IV. Which consideration is most important when administering this dose?
1. Therapeutic drug levels should be maintained between 20 to 30 mg/ml.
2. Rapid dilantin administration can cause cardiac arrhythmias.
3. Dilantin should be mixed in dextrose in water before administration.
4. Dilantin should be administered through an IV catheter in the client's hand. - CORRECT
ANSWERS 2. Rapid dilantin administration can cause cardiac arrhythmias.
Dilantin IV shouldn't be given at a rate exceeding 50 mg/minute. Rapid administration can
depress the myocardium, causing arrhythmias. Therapeutic drug levels range from 10 to 20
mg/ml. Dilantin shouldn't be mixed in solution for administration.
When given through an IV catheter hand, dilantin may cause purple glove syndrome.
A client with head trauma develops a urine output of 300 ml/hr, dry skin, and dry mucous
membranes. Which of the following nursing interventions is the most appropriate to
perform initially?
1. Evaluate urine specific gravity
2. Anticipate treatment for renal failure
3. Provide emollients to the skin to prevent breakdown
4. Slow down the IV fluids and notify the physician - CORRECT ANSWERS 1. Evaluate urine
specific gravity
Urine output of 300 ml/hr may indicate diabetes insipidus, which is a failure of the pituitary
to produce anti-diuretic hormone. This may occur with increased intracranial pressure and
head trauma; the nurse evaluates for low urine specific gravity, increased serum osmolarity,
and dehydration.
Slowing the rate of IV fluid would contribute to dehydration when polyuria is present.
,NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
When evaluating an ABG from a client with a subdural hematoma, the nurse notes the
PaCO2 is 30 mm Hg. Which of the following responses best describes this result?
1. Appropriate; lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP)
2. Emergent; the client is poorly oxygenated.
3. Normal
4. Significant; the client has alveolar hypoventilation. - CORRECT ANSWERS 1. Appropriate;
lowering carbon dioxide (CO2) reduces intracranial pressure (ICP)
A normal PaCO2 value is 35 to 45 mm Hg. CO2 has vasodilating properties; therefore,
lowering PaCO2 through hyperventilation will lower ICP caused by dilated cerebral vessels.
A client who had a transsphenoidal hypophysectomy should be watched carefully for
hemorrhage, which may be shown by which of the following signs?
1. Bloody drainage from the ears
2. Frequent swallowing
3. Guaiac-positive stools
4. Hematuria - CORRECT ANSWERS 2. Frequent swallowing
Frequent swallowing after brain surgery may indicate fluid or blood leaking from the sinuses
into the oropharynx. Blood or fluid draining from the ear may indicate a basilar skull
fracture.
After a hypophysectomy, vasopressin is given IM for which of the following reasons?
1. To treat growth failure
2. To prevent syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone (SIADH)
3. To reduce cerebral edema and lower intracranial pressure
4. To replace antidiuretic hormone (ADH) normally secreted by the pituitary. - CORRECT
ANSWERS 4. To replace antidiuretic hormone (ADH) normally secreted by the pituitary.
After hypophysectomy, or removal of the pituitary gland, the body can't synthesize ADH.
,NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
Somatropin or growth hormone, not vasopressin is used to treat growth failure.
SIADH results from excessive ADH secretion. Mannitol or corticosteroids are used to
decrease cerebral edema.
A client comes into the ER after hitting his head in an MVA. He's alert and oriented. Which of
the following nursing interventions should be done first?
1. Assess full ROM to determine extent of injuries
2. Call for an immediate chest x-ray
3. Immobilize the client's head and neck
4. Open the airway with the head-tilt chin-lift maneuver - CORRECT ANSWERS 3. Immobilize
the client's head and neck
All clients with a head injury are treated as if a cervical spine injury is present until x-rays
confirm their absence.
A client with a C6 spinal injury would most likely have which of the following symptoms?
1. Aphasia
2. Hemiparesis
3. Paraplegia
4. Tetraplegia - CORRECT ANSWERS 4. Tetraplegia
A 30-year-old was admitted to the progressive care unit with a C5 fracture from a motorcycle
accident. Which of the following assessments would take priority?
1. Bladder distension
2. Neurological deficit
3. Pulse ox readings
4. The client's feelings about the injury - CORRECT ANSWERS 3. Pulse ox readings
After a spinal cord injury, ascending cord edema may cause a higher level of injury. The
diaphragm is innervated at the level of C4, so assessment of adequate oxygenation and
, NUR1306 TEST #2 QUESTIONS NEUROLOGY ALL ANSWERS CORRECT
VERIFIED A COMPLETE SOLUTION THAT COVERS 2024/2025 BEST
RATED TO SCORE A+ FOR SUCCESS
ventilation is necessary. Although the other options would be necessary at a later time,
observation for respiratory failure is the priority.
While in the ER, a client with C8 tetraplegia develops a blood pressure of 80/40, pulse 48,
and RR of 18. The nurse suspects which of the following conditions?
1. Autonomic dysreflexia
2. Hemorrhagic shock
3. Neurogenic shock
4. Pulmonary embolism - CORRECT ANSWERS 3. Neurogenic shock
Symptoms of neurogenic shock include hypotension, bradycardia, and warm, dry skin due to
the loss of adrenergic stimulation below the level of the lesion.
Hypertension, bradycardia, flushing, and sweating of the skin are seen with *autonomic
dysreflexia*. *Hemorrhagic shock* presents with anxiety, tachycardia, and hypotension; this
wouldn't be suspected without an injury.
*Pulmonary embolism* presents with chest pain, hypotension, hypoxemia, tachycardia, and
hemoptysis; this may be a later complication of spinal cord injury due to immobility.
A client is admitted with a spinal cord injury at the level of T12. He has limited movement of
his upper extremities. Which of the following medications would be used to control edema
of the spinal cord?
1. Acetazolamide (Diamox)
2. Furosemide (Lasix)
3. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
4. Sodium bicarbonate - CORRECT ANSWERS 3. Methylprednisolone (Solu-Medrol)
High doses of Solu-Medrol are used within 24 hours of spinal injury to reduce cord swelling
and limit neurological deficit.
A 22-year-old client with quadriplegia is apprehensive and flushed, with a blood pressure of
210/100 and a heart rate of 50 bpm. Which of the following nursing interventions should be
done first?
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