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Which drugs will go through a pharmaceutic phase after it is administered? a. Intramuscular cephalosporins b. Intravenous vasopressors c. Oral analgesics d. Subcutaneous antiglycemics - answer-c The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication and

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Which drugs will go through a pharmaceutic phase after it is administered? a. Intramuscular cephalosporins b. Intravenous vasopressors c. Oral analgesics d. Subcutaneous antiglycemics - answer-c The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication and wants to ensure a rapid drug action. Which form of the medication will the nurse administer? a. Capsule b. Enteric-coated pill c. Liquid suspension d. Tablet - answer-c The nurse is teaching a patient who will be discharged home with a prescription for an enteric-coated tablet. Which statement by the patient indicates understanding of the teaching? a. "I may crush the tablet and put it in applesauce to improve absorption." b. "I should consume acidic foods to enhance absorption of this medication." c. "I should expect a delay in onset of the drug's effects after taking the tablet." d. "I should take this medication with high-fat foods to improve its action." - answer-c A patient who is newly diagnosed with type 1 diabetes mellitus asks why insulin must be given by subcutaneous injection instead of by mouth. The nurse will explain that this is because a. absorption is diminished by the first-pass effects in the liver. b. absorption is faster when insulin is given subcutaneously. c. digestive enzymes in the gastrointestinal tract prevent absorption. d. the oral form is less predictable with more adverse effects. - answer-c The nurse is preparing to administer an oral medication that is water-soluble. The nurse understands that this drug a. must be taken on an empty stomach. b. requires active transport for absorption. c. should be taken with fatty foods. d. will readily diffuse into the gastrointestinal tract. - answer-b A nurse is preparing to administer an oral drug that is best absorbed in an acidic environment. How will the nurse give the drug? a. On an empty stomach b. With a full glass of water c. With food d. With high-fat food - answer-c The nurse is preparing an injectable drug and wants to administer it for rapid absorption. How will the nurse give this medication? a. IM into the deltoid muscle b. IM into the gluteal muscle c. SubQ into abdominal tissue d. SubQ into the upper arm - answer-a The nurse is reviewing medication information with a nursing student prior to administering an oral drug and notes that the drug has extensive first-pass effects. Which statement by the student indicates a need for further teaching about this medication? a. "The first-pass effect means the drug may be absorbed into systemic circulation from the intestinal lumen." b. "The first-pass effect means the drug may be changed to an inactive form and excreted." c. "The first-pass effect means the drug may be changed to a metabolite, which may be more active than the original." d. "The first-pass effect means the drug may be unchanged as it passes through the liver." - answer-a The nurse prepares to change a patient's medication from an intravenous to an oral form and notes that the oral form is ordered in a higher dose. The nurse understands that this is due to differences in a. bioavailability. b. pinocytosis. c. protein binding. d. tachyphylaxis. - answer-a The nurse is preparing to administer a drug and learns that it binds to protein at a rate of 90%. The patient's serum albumin level is low. The nurse will observe the patient for a. decreased drug absorption. b. decreased drug interactions. c. decreased drug toxicity. d. increased drug effects. - answer-d The nurse is administering two drugs to a patient and learns that both drugs are highly protein-bound. The nurse may expect a. decreased bioavailability of both drugs. b. decreased drug effects. c. decreased drug interactions. d. increased risk of adverse effects. - answer-d The nurse gives a medication to a patient with a history of liver disease. The nurse will monitor this patient for a. decreased drug effects. b. increased drug effects. c. decreased therapeutic range. d. increased therapeutic range. - answer-b The nurse gives 800 mg of a drug that has a half-life of 8 hours. How much drug will be left in the body in 24 hours if no additional drug is given? a. None b. 50 mg c. 100 mg d. 200 mg - answer-c If a drug has a half-life of 12 hours and is given twice daily starting at 0800 on a Monday, when will a steady state be achieved? a. 0800 on Tuesday b. 0800 on Wednesday c. 0800 on Thursday d. 0800 on Friday - answer-b The nurse administers albuterol to a patient who has asthma. The albuterol acts by stimulating beta2-adrenergic receptors to cause bronchodilation. The nurse understands that albuterol is a beta-adrenergic a. agonist. b. antagonist. c. inhibitor. d. depressant. - answer-a The nurse is explaining to the patient why a nonspecific drug has so many side effects. Which statement by the patient indicates a need for further teaching? a. "Nonspecific drugs can affect specific receptor types in different body tissues." b. "Nonspecific drugs can affect a variety of receptor types in similar body tissues." c. "Nonspecific drugs can affect hormone secretion as well as cellular functions." d. "Nonspecific drugs require higher doses than specific drugs to be effective." - answer-d The nurse is preparing to give a dose of gentamicin to a patient and notes that the most recent serum gentamicin trough level was 2 mcg/mL. What will the nurse do next? a. Administer the drug as ordered. b. Administer the drug and monitor for adverse effects. c. Notify the provider to discuss decreasing the dose. d. Notify the provider to report a toxic drug level. - answer-d The nurse is preparing to administer the first dose of digoxin (Lanoxin) to a patient and notes that the dose ordered is much higher than the usual recommended dose. Which action will the nurse perform? a. Administer the dose as ordered. b. Give the dose and monitor for toxicity. c. Hold the dose until reviewing it with the provider. d. Refuse to give the dose. - answer-a The nurse administers a narcotic analgesic to a patient who has been receiving it for 1 day after orthopedic surgery. The patient reports no change in pain 30 minutes after the medication is given. The nurse recognizes that this patient is exhibiting a. drug-seeking behavior. b. drug tolerance. c. the placebo effect. d. tachyphylaxis. - answer-d The patient is receiving two different drugs. At current dosages and dosage forms, both drugs are absorbed into the circulation in identical amounts. Thus, because they have the same absorption rates, they are uivalent. gistic. ugs. a steady state. - answer-a The nurse is administering parenteral drugs. Which statement is true regarding parenteral drugs? a. Parenteral drugs bypass the first-pass effect. b. Absorption of parenteral drugs is affected by reduced blood flow to the stomach. c. Absorption of parenteral drugs is faster when the stomach is empty. d. Parenteral drugs exert their effects while circulating in the bloodstream. - answer-a When monitoring the patient receiving an intravenous infusion to reduce blood pressure, the nurse notes that the patient's blood pressure is extremely low, and the patient is lethargic and difficult to awaken. This would be classified as which type of adverse drug reaction? a. An adverse effect b. An allergic reaction c. An idiosyncratic reaction d. A pharmacologic reaction - answer-d When administering drugs, the nurse remembers that the duration of action of a drug is defined as the time a. it takes for a drug to elicit a therapeutic response. b. needed to remove a drug from circulation. c. it takes for a drug to achieve its maximum therapeutic response. d. period when a drug's concentration is sufficient to cause a therapeutic response - answer-d When administering a new medication to a patient, the nurse reads that it is highly protein bound. Assuming that the patient's albumin levels are normal, the nurse would expect which result, as compared to a medication that is not highly protein bound? a. Renal excretion will be faster. b. The drug will be metabolized quickly. c. The duration of action of the medication will be shorter. d. The duration of action of the medication will be longer. - answer-d The nurse administered a sleeping pill to an elderly patient at bedtime. Two hours later, the patient was irritable, restless, and unable to sleep. The nurse describes the patient's response as which type of reaction? a. Allergic reaction b. Mutagenic effect c. Idiosyncratic reaction d. Teratogenic reaction - answer-c . The patient is complaining of a headache and asks the nurse which over-the-counter medication form would work the fastest to help reduce the pain. Which medication form will the nurse suggest? a. A capsule b. A tablet c. An enteric-coated tablet d. A powder - answer-d A patient was diagnosed with pancreatic cancer last month, and has complained of a dull ache in the abdomen for the past 4 months. This pain has been gradually increasing, and the pain relievers taken at home are no longer effective. What type of pain is the patient experiencing? a. Acute pain b. Chronic pain c. Somatic pain d. Neuropathic pain - answer-b An 18-year-old basketball player fell and twisted his ankle during a game. The nurse will expect to administer which type of analgesic? a. Synthetic opioid, such as meperidine (Demerol) b. Opium alkaloid, such as morphine sulfate c. Opioid antagonist, such as naloxone HCL (Narcan) d. Nonopioid analgesic, such as indomethacin (Indocin) - answer-d A patient is recovering from abdominal surgery, which he had this morning. He is groggy but complaining of severe pain around his incision. What is the most important assessment data to consider before the nurse administers a dose of morphine sulfate to the patient? a. His pulse rate b. His respiratory rate c. The appearance of the incision d. The date of his last bowel movement - answer-b A 78-year-old patient is in the recovery room after having a lengthy surgery on his hip. As he is gradually awakening, he requests pain medication. Within 10 minutes after receiving a dose of morphine sulfate, he is very lethargic and his respirations are shallow, with a rate of 7 per minute. The nurse prepares for which priority action at this time? a. Assessment of the patient's pain level b. Immediate intubation and artificial ventilation c. Administration of naloxone (Narcan) d. Close observation of signs of opioid tolerance - answer-c A patient will be discharged with a 1-week supply of an opioid analgesic for pain management after abdominal surgery. The nurse will include which information in the teaching plan? a. How to prevent dehydration due to diarrhea b. Importance of taking the drug only when the pain becomes severe c. How to prevent constipation d. Importance of taking the drug on an empty stomach - answer-c A 38-year-old man has come into the urgent care center with severe hip pain after falling from a ladder at work. He says he has taken several pain pills over the past few hours but cannot remember how many he has taken. He hands the nurse an empty bottle of acetaminophen (Tylenol). The nurse is aware that the most serious toxic effect of acute acetaminophen overdose is which condition? a. Tachycardia b. Central nervous system depression c. Hepatic necrosis d. Nephropathy - answer-c A 57-year-old woman being treated for end-stage breast cancer has been using a transdermal opioid analgesic as part of the management of pain. Lately, she has been experiencing breakthrough pain. The nurse expects this type of pain to be managed by a. administering NSAIDs. b. administering an immediate-release opioid. c. changing the opioid route to the rectal route. d. not changing the current therapy. - answer-b A patient is receiving gabapentin (Neurontin), an anticonvulsant, but has no history of seizures. The nurse expects that the patient is receiving this drug for which condition? a. Inflammation pain b. Pain associated with peripheral neuropathy c. Depression associated with chronic pain d. Prevention of seizures - answer-b The nurse is assessing a patient who has been admitted to the emergency department for a possible opioid overdose. Which assessment finding is characteristic of an opioid drug overdose? a. Dilated pupils b. Restlessness c. Respiration rate of 6 breaths/minute d. Heart rate of 55 beats/minute - answer-c The drug nalbuphine (Nubain) is an agonist-antagonist (partial agonist). The nurse understands that which is a characteristic of partial agonists? a. They have antiinflammatory effects. b. They are given to reverse the effects of opiates. c. They have a higher potency than agonists. d. They have a lower dependency potential than agonists. - answer-d A patient arrives at the urgent care center complaining of leg pain after a fall when rock climbing. The x-rays show no broken bones, but he has a large bruise on his thigh. The patient says he drives a truck and does not want to take anything strong because he needs to stay awake. Which statement by the nurse is most appropriate? a. "It would be best for you not to take anything if you are planning to drive your truck." b. "We will discuss with your doctor about taking an opioid because that would work best for your pain." c. "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 1000 mg per day." d. "You can take acetaminophen, also known as Tylenol, for pain, but no more than 3000 mg per day." - answer-d A patient is suffering from tendonitis of the knee. The nurse is reviewing the patient's medication administration record and recognizes that which adjuvant medication is most appropriate for this type of pain? a. Antidepressant b. Anticonvulsant c. Corticosteroid d. Local anesthesia - answer-c Which activity best reflects the implementation phase of the nursing process for the patient who is newly diagnosed with hypertension? a. Providing education on keeping a journal of blood pressure readings b. Setting goals and outcome criteria with the patient's input c. Recording a drug history regarding over-the-counter medications used at home d. Formulating nursing diagnoses regarding deficient knowledge related to the new treatment regimen - answer-a During the development of a new drug, which would be included in the study by the researcher to prevent any bias or unrealistic expectations of the new drug's usefulness? a. A placebo b. FDA approval c. Informed consent d. Safety information - answer-a When reviewing the various schedules of controlled drugs, the nurse knows that which description correctly describes Schedule II drugs? a. Drugs with high potential for abuse that have accepted medical use b. Drugs with high potential for abuse that do not have accepted medical use c. Medically accepted drugs that may cause moderate physical or psychological dependence d. Medically accepted drugs with limited potential for causing physical or psychological dependence - answer-a Nurses have the ethical responsibility to tell the truth to their patients. What is this principle known as? a. Justice b. Veracity c. Beneficence d. Autonomy - answer-b A patient is undergoing major surgery and asks the nurse about a living will. He states, "I don't want anybody else making decisions for me. And I don't want to prolong my life." The patient is demonstrating which ethical term? a. Autonomy b. Beneficence c. Justice d. Veracity - answer-a The nurse is reviewing a list of scheduled drugs and notes that Schedule C-I drugs are not on the list. Which is a characteristic of Schedule C-I drugs? a. No refills are permitted b. May be obtained over the counter with a signature c. Are available only by written prescription d. Are used only with approved protocols - answer-d During a fishing trip, a patient pierced his finger with a large fishhook. He is now in the emergency department to have it removed. The nurse anticipates that which type of anesthesia will be used for this procedure? a. No anesthesia b. Topical benzocaine spray on the area c. Topical prilocaine (EMLA) cream around the site d. Infiltration of the puncture wound with lidocaine - answer-d A patient is to receive local anesthesia for removal of a lymph node from his armpit. The physician asks for a solution of premixed lidocaine and epinephrine. The nurse knows that the epinephrine is used for which reason? a. It prevents an anaphylactic reaction from occurring. b. The anesthetic enhances the effect of the epinephrine. c. Epinephrine contributes to a balanced anesthetic state. d. It keeps the anesthetic at its local site of action and decreases incisional bleeding. - answer-d During the immediate postoperative recovery period, what is the nurse's priority assessment? a. Pupil responses b. Return to sensation c. Level of consciousness d. Airway, breathing, and circulation - answer-d While monitoring a patient who had surgery under general anesthesia 2 hours ago, the nurse notes a sudden elevation in body temperature. This finding may be an indication of which problem? a. Tachyphylaxis b. Postoperative infection c. Malignant hypertension d. Malignant hyperthermia - answer-d When assessing patients in the preoperative area, the nurse knows that which patient is at a higher risk for an altered response to anesthesia? a. The 30-year-old patient who has never had surgery before b. The 45-year-old patient who stopped smoking 10 years ago c. The 21-year-old patient who is to have a kidney stone removed d. The 78-year-old patient who is to have gallbladder removal - answer-d A patient is undergoing abdominal surgery and has been anesthetized for 3 hours. Which nursing diagnosis would be appropriate for this patient? a. Anxiety related to the use of an anesthetic b. Risk for injury related to increased sensorium from general anesthesia c. Decreased cardiac output related to systemic effects of local anesthesia d. Impaired gas exchange related to central nervous system depression produced by general anesthesia - answer-d When administering a neuromuscular blocking drug such as pancuronium (Pavulon), the nurse needs to remember which principle? a. It is used instead of general anesthesia during surgery. b. Only skeletal muscles are paralyzed; respiratory muscles remain functional. c. It causes sedation and pain relief while allowing for lower doses of anesthetics. d. Artificial mechanical ventilation is required because of paralyzed respiratory muscles. - answer-d A patient has been given succinylcholine (Anectine) after a severe injury that necessitated controlled ventilation. The physician now wants to reverse the paralysis. The nurse would expect to use which drug to reverse the succinylcholine? a. valium (Diazepam) b. caffeine c. neostigmine (Prostigmin) d. vecuronium (Norcuron) - answer-c A patient is being prepared for an oral endoscopy, and the nurse anesthetist reminds him that he will be awake during the procedure but probably will not remember it. What type of anesthetic technique is used in this situation? a. Local anesthesia b. Moderate sedation c. Topical anesthesia d. Spinal anesthesia - answer-b During the immediate postoperative period, the Post Anesthesia Care Unit nurse is assessing a patient who had hip surgery. The patient is experiencing tachycardia, tachypnea, and muscle rigidity, and his temperature is 103° F (39.4° C). The nurse will prepare for what immediate treatment? a. naltrexone hydrochloride (Narcan) injection, an opioid reversal drug b. dantrolene (Dantrium) injection, a skeletal muscle relaxant c. An anticholinesterase drug, such as neostigmine d. Cardiopulmonary resuscitation (CPR) and intubation - answer-b The nurse reads in the patient's medication history that the patient is taking buspirone (BuSpar). The nurse interprets that the patient may have which disorder? a. Anxiety disorder b. Depression c. Schizophrenia d. Bipolar disorder - answer-a Before beginning a patient's therapy with selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) antidepressants, the nurse will assess for concurrent use of which medications or medication class? a. Aspirin b. Anticoagulants c. Diuretics d. Nonsteroidal antiinflammatory drugs - answer-b When a patient is receiving a second-generation antipsychotic drug, such as risperidone (Risperdal), the nurse will monitor for which therapeutic effect? a. Fewer panic attacks b. Decreased paranoia and delusions c. Decreased feeling of hopelessness d. Improved tardive dyskinesia - answer-b A patient has been taking haloperidol (Haldol) for 3 months for a psychotic disorder, and the nurse is concerned about the development of extrapyramidal symptoms. The nurse will monitor the patient closely for which effects? a. Increased paranoia b. Drowsiness and dizziness c. Tremors and muscle twitching d. Dry mouth and constipation - answer-c A 22-year-old patient has been taking lithium for 1 year, and the most recent lithium level is btwn 0.6 and 1.2 mEq/L. Which statement about the laboratory result is correct? a. The lithium level is therapeutic. b. The lithium level is too low. c. This lithium level is too high. d. Lithium is not usually monitored with blood levels. - answer-a A patient with the diagnosis of schizophrenia is hospitalized and is taking a phenothiazine drug. Which statement by this patient indicates that he is experiencing a common adverse effect of phenothiazines? a. "I can't sleep at night." b. "I feel hungry all the time." c. "Look at how red my hands are." d. "My mouth has been so dry lately." - answer-d A patient has been taking the selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor (SSRI) sertraline (Zoloft) for about 6 months. At a recent visit, she tells the nurse that she has been interested in herbal therapies and wants to start taking St. John's wort. Which response by the nurse is appropriate? a. "That should be no problem." b. "Good idea! Hopefully you'll be able to stop taking the Zoloft." c. "Be sure to stop taking the herb if you notice a change in side effects." d. "Taking St. John's wort with Zoloft may cause severe interactions and is not recommended." - answer-d A patient has been admitted to the emergency department with a suspected overdose of a tricyclic antidepressant. The nurse will prepare for what immediate concern? a. Hypertension b. Renal failure c. Cardiac dysrhythmias d. Gastrointestinal bleeding - answer-c The wife of a patient who has been diagnosed with depression calls the office and says, "It's been an entire week since he started that new medicine for his depression, and there's no change! What's wrong with him?" What is the nurse's best response? a. "The medication may not be effective for him. He may need to try another type." b. "It may take up to 4 weeks to notice any therapeutic effects. Let's wait a little longer to see how he does." c. "It sounds like the dose is not high enough. I'll check about increasing the dosage." d. "Some patients never recover from depression. He may not respond to this therapy." - answer-b Chlorpromazine (Thorazine) is prescribed for a patient, and the nurse provides instructions to the patient about the medication. The nurse includes which information? a. The patient needs to avoid caffeine while on this drug. b. The patient needs to wear sunscreen while outside because of photosensitivity. c. Long-term therapy may result in nervousness and excitability. d. The medication may be taken with an antacid to reduce gastrointestinal upset - answer-b The nurse is reviewing the food choices of a patient who is taking a monoamine oxidase inhibitor (MAOI). Which food choice would indicate the need for additional teaching? a. Orange juice b. Fried eggs over-easy c. Salami and Swiss cheese sandwich d. Biscuits and honey - answer-c A patient wants to take a ginseng dietary supplement. The nurse instructs the patient to look for which potential adverse effect? a. Drowsiness b. Palpitations and anxiety c. Dry mouth d. Constipation - answer-b The nurse is reviewing medications used for depression. Which of these statements is a reason that selective serotonin reuptake inhibitors (SSRIs) are more widely prescribed today than tricyclic antidepressants? a. SSRIs have fewer sexual side effects. b. Unlike tricyclic antidepressants, SSRIs do not have drug-food interactions. c. Tricyclic antidepressants cause serious cardiac dysrhythmias if an overdose occurs. d. SSRIs cause a therapeutic response faster than tricyclic antidepressants. - answer-c

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TEST BANK For Paramedic Care -
Principles and Practice, 6th Edition,
Volume 1 - 5 by Bledsoe,

Surveillance - answer-- Surveillance is the process of collecting data in order to identify
the existence, significance, and characteristics of disease.



- As energy stores from the liver and muscle glycogen are exhausted, the core body
temperature will drop.

Active rewarming - answer-- rewarmed using active external methods.

- warmed blankets and/or heat packs placed over areas of high heat transfer with the
core: the base of the neck, the axilla, and the groin.

- insulate between the heat packs and the skin

- Intravenous fluid heaters can be used to heat the IV fluid to 95°F to 100°F (35°C to
38°C)

- Warm-water immersion in water between 102°F and 104°F (39°C to 40°C) may be
used, but can induce rewarming shock.

- Active rewarming of the severely hypothermic patient is best carried out in the hospital.
Active rewarming should not be attempted in the field unless travel to the emergency
department will take more than 15 minutes.

- Rough handling of the hypothermic patient may also induce ventricular fibrillation

- warmed (102°F to 104°F or 39°C to 40°C) humidified oxygen and administration of
warmed IV fluids (also warmed to 102°F to 104°F, or 39°C to 40°C)

Rewarming Shock - answer-- application of external heat, as with heat packs, is usually
not recommended in the prehospital setting.

,- Causes reflex peripheral vasodialation; This reflex vasodilation causes the return of
cool blood and acids from the extremities to the core. This may cause a paradoxical
"afterdrop" core temperature decrease and further worsen core hypothermia. This, in
turn, may cause the blood pressure to fall, especially when there is also volume
depletion.

- Administration of warmed IV fluids during rewarming can prevent the onset of
rewarming shock.

Cold Diuresis - answer-- Volume depletion can occur as a result

Pathophysiology of drowning - answer-- As patient is submerged in water they attempt
to breathe, and either they aspirate water or their larynx spasms ("Laryngospasm") and
causes them to suffocate

Epidemiology - answer-Study of factors that influence the frequency, distribution, and
causes of injury, disease, and other health related events in a population.

Risk Analysis - answer-A process to examine a disease and determine the various
factors that affect its development, course, and consequences.

- A tool to identify risk elements associated with trauma is the Haddon Matrix

Haddon Matrix - answer-A framework developed by William Haddon, Jr, MD as a
method to generate ideas about injury prevention that address the host, agent, and
environment and their impact in the pre-event, event, and post-event phases of the
injury process

Intervention Development - answer-- The creation or modification of programs to reduce
both the incidence and the seriousness of trauma

Implementation - answer-the act of placing an intervention into practice.

Ex: enforcing traffic laws, reducing speed limits in hazardous areas, modifying highways
to be safer, building safer vehicles, establishing gun safety programs and workplace
safety codes.

Evaluation - answer-- process of repeating the surveillance that took place before an
intervention to identify benefits of the intervention.

Level I Trauma Center - answer-- Regional Trauma Center

- Commits resources to address all types of specialty trauma 24 hours a day, 7 days a
week.

,Level II Trauma Center - answer-- Area Trauma Center

- Commits the resources to address the most common trauma emergencies with
surgical capability available 24 hours a day, 7 days a week; stabilizes and transports
specialty cases to the regional trauma center.

Level III Trauma Center - answer-- Community Trauma Center

- Commits to special emergency department training and has some surgical capability
but usually stabilizes and transfers seriously injured trauma patients to a higher-level
trauma center as needed.

Level IV Trauma Center - answer-- Trauma Facility

- In remote areas, a small community hospital or medical care facility can be designated
a trauma receiving facility, meaning that it stabilizes and prepares seriously injured
trauma patients for transport to a higher-level facility.

Specialty Centers - answer-- Specialty centers have made a commitment to have
trained personnel, equipment, and other resources to provide services not usually
available at a general or trauma hospital.

- Ex: neurocenters, burn centers, pediatric trauma centers, and centers specializing in
hand and limb replantation by microsurgery, hyperbaric oxygenation.

Scene Safety - answer-- Many scene hazards go unnoticed

- Do not enter an Unsafe scene

- Request additional resources to ensure a safe scene and then await their arrival.

Mechanism of Injury Analysis - answer-- MOI

- Combined strength, direction, and nature of forces that injured a person; The manner
in which trauma occurs

Index of suspicion - answer-The anticipation of injury to a body region, organ, or
structure based on analysis of the mechanism of injury.

Trauma Triage Criteria - answer-- Guidelines to aid prehospital personnel in determining
which trauma patients require urgent transportation to a trauma center.

Physiologic Criteria - Trauma Center Criteria - answer-- Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
score less than or equal to 13,

- Systolic blood pressure (SBP) of less than 90 mmHg,

, - Respiratory rate of less than 10 or more than 29 breaths per minute (< 20 in infant
aged <1 year), or need for ventilatory support.

Anatomic Criteria - Trauma Center Criteria - answer-- All penetrating injuries to head,
neck, torso, and extremities proximal to elbow or knee

- Chest wall instability or deformity

- Two or more proximal long-bone fractures

- Crushed, degloved, mangled, or pulseless extremity

- Amputation proximal to wrist or ankle

- Pelvic fracture

- Open or depressed skull fractures

- Paralysis

Mechanism of injury - Trauma Center Criteria - answer-- Falls: Adults = > 20 feet; Peds
= > 10 feet or 2 to 3 times the height of the child

- High-risk auto crash: Intrusion > 12 inches; Ejection (partial or complete) from
automobile; Death in same passenger compartment; Vehicle telemetry data consistent
with a high risk for injury

- Automobile vs. pedestrian/bicyclist thrown, run over, or with significant (> 20 mph)
impact; or motorcycle crash > 20 mph

Special Considerations - answer-- Older adults: risk for injury/death increases after age
55 years, SBP < 110 might represent shock after age 65 years, low-impact mechanisms
(e.g. ground level falls) might result in severe injury.

- Children: Should be triaged preferentially to pediatric capable trauma centers.-
Anticoagulants and bleeding disorders: patients with head injury are at high risk for
rapid deterioration.

- Burns: without other trauma mechanisms = triage to burn facility; with trauma
mechanisms = triage to trauma center

- Pregnancy > 20 weeks

- EMS provider judgment

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