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ARDMS RVT Practice QuesARDMS RVT Practice Questions fully solved & updated 2024tions fully solved & updated 2024
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ARDMS RVT Practice Questions fully solved & updated 2024
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ARDMS RVT PracticeQuestions fully solved
& updated 2024
While performing an AUG during a venous Doppler,
you notice a change of color from blue to red that
lasts 4 seconds. This is most likely caused by:
A. DVT
B. venous reflux
C. HTN
D. none of the above
B
Making sure you're scale is not inverted, the blue
should indicate flow away from the transducer,
which is NL venous flow. If flow is red, that means
signal goes toward the transducer.
While scanning the popliteal area, you notice a
round, anechoic structure. This is most likely a:
A. thrombus
B. Baker's cyst
C. aneurysm
D. edema
B
,The NL renal artery waveform is:
A. low resistance
B. high resistance
C. triphasic
D. biphasic
A
It's going to have forward (antegrade) flow
throughout the entire cardiac cycle and a good
amount of diastolic flow. It is also monophasic.
This spectral waveform from the distal ICA
suggests:
A. ICA stenosis
B. ECA stenosis
C. brain death
D. occlusion of the proximal ICA
D
In a patient w/ portal HTN, you notice a network of
varices on the ABD wall. This is known as:
A. caput medusa
B. azygos vein
,C. hemiazygos vein
D. gastric varices
A
A common cause of varicose veins is:
A. muscle hypertrophy
B. valvular incompetence
C. intimal thickening
D. arterial thrombus
B
A patient w/ mild claudication has a PVR. The
ankle-brachial index is 1.09. What should you do
next?
A. discharge
B. perform a stress test
C. reboot the machine
D. go on a break
B
How do you calculate an ABI?
A. ankle BP multiplied by arm BP
B. ankle BP divided by arm BP
C. arm BP divided by ankle BP
D. ankle BP subtracted by arm BP
B
Your patient has erythema and edema along his
anterior tibial regions. This is most likely:
A. venous ulcer
B. varicose veins
C. thrombophlebitis
D. cellulitis
, D
Cellulitis usually appears as edema and redness of
the skin.
How can you acquire the specificity of a diagnostic
exam?
A. number of true positives + false negatives
B. number of true positives / all positive diagnoses
C. number of true negatives / all negative
diagnoses
D. none of the above
C
A 21-year-old male experiences cramps in his
gastrocnemius after leg presses. His ankle
pressures are NL at rest, but decrease after
exercise. This is most likely:
A. SFA occlusion
B. popliteal stenosis
C. popliteal entrapment
D. compartment syndrome
C
Femoral artery occlusion would be uncommon in a
21-year-old. Popliteal stenosis would also not be
likely in such a young patient. Compartment
syndrome is increased pressures in a muscle
compartment usually caused by an injury like a
fracture.
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