Test Bank For Focus on Nursing Pharmacology 7th Edition By
Amy M. Karch 9781496318213 ALL Chapters .
Before the selection of an aminoglycoside to treat a client's wound infection, what would the nurse
expect the physician to order? - ANSWER: Culture and sensitivity
The choice of aminoglycoside depends on local susceptibility patterns and specific organisms causing
an infection.
A client has a diagnosis of otitis media and has just begun antibiotic treatment. The client reports
otalgia and has asked for medication. The nurse should anticipate the administration of: - ANSWER:
acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Tylenol is the first-line analgesic for most cases of otalgia accompanying otitis. Opioids and ketorolac
are not normally indicated.
Streptococcus pneumonia is an example of gram-negative bacteria. - ANSWER: False
Streptococcus pneumonia is a gram-positive bacterium.
The nurse knows that pseudomembranous colitis is a superinfection of fluoroquinolones, especially
when they are administered in high doses, because these medications have what effect in the body? -
ANSWER: They disrupt the microbial flora of the body.
Pseudomembranous colitis is a superinfection that occurs when the antibiotic disrupts the normal
flora, causing a secondary infection or superinfection.
A patient with septicemia is administered cefotaxime sodium (Claforan). How is this medication
excreted? - ANSWER: It is excreted by the kidneys.
Cefotaxime sodium is excreted by the kidneys. Cefotaxime is not excreted by the lungs, liver, or skin.
The nurse receives a call from a client who is taking clindamycin (Cleocin) and reports of a burning
feeling when swallowing. The nurse knows that the client has developed which adverse reaction
related to this medication? - ANSWER: esophagitis
The client reports esophagitis (an inflammation of the esophagus) that may be seen in clients taking
clindamycin. The pain is in the client's throat, thus it is not gastritis. It also does not describe nausea.
Peptic ulcer is not a common adverse reaction to clindamycin. (less)
The nurse is providing care for a teenager with otitis media. When assessing the patient for
potentially adverse effects of Cortisporin Otic, what question should the nurse ask? - ANSWER: "Have
you noticed any loss of hearing since you started taking the drops?"
It is necessary to assess the patient taking Cortisporin Otic for signs of hearing loss due to ototoxicity.
Fever, bleeding, and headaches are not typical adverse effects.
A patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with signs and symptoms of sepsis and
preliminary results of the patient's initial blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). This finding is an indication for treatment with? - ANSWER:
daptomycin.
Daptomycin is FDA approved for treatment of bacteremia due to S. aureus (including MRSA).
Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and polymyxin B are not typically used in cases of MRSA sepsis. (less)
, A nurse teaching the patient with tuberculosis (TB) should include the following information about
ethambutol: - ANSWER: It can cause optic neuritis.
One of the most severe adverse reactions to ethambutol is optic neuritis, which is a decrease in visual
acuity and changes in color perception. The other options are not known adverse reactions to
ethambutol. (less)
A patient is allergic to penicillin and has been diagnosed with a genitourinary infection caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following medications will be administered? - ANSWER:
Erythromycin (Ery-Tab)
A patient who is diagnosed with a genitourinary infection that is caused by trachomatis and who is
allergic to penicillin should be administered erythromycin (Ery-Tab). Acamprosate calcium is
administered as a substance abuse deterrent, not in place of penicillin. Atazanavir (Reyataz) is an
antiviral agent that is used to treat HIV infection, not Chlamydia trachomatis. Flumazenil is a
benzodiazepine antagonist and not used for Chlamydia trachomatis. (less)
A patient is hospitalized due to noncompliance with an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the
following is most important for the nurse to do? - ANSWER: Observe the patient taking the
medications
Directly observed therapy in which a health care provider observes the patient taking each dose of
anti-TB drugs is recommended for all drug regimens and is considered mandatory in this case. The
medications are not administered parenterally. The family should be instructed on the medication
regime, but this action is not imperative in maintaining compliance. The patient should not be taking
her/his own medications. (less)
If a nurse needs to administer otic preparations in both of the patient's ears, how long should the
nurse wait to place drops in the second ear? (Choose one) - ANSWER: At least 5 minutes
If medication is needed in the other ear, it is best to wait at least 5 minutes after instillation of the
first ear drops before administering drops to the other ear.
Chest radiography and sputum sample microscopy have confirmed a diagnosis of TB in a 40-year-old
man who has a history of type 1 diabetes and who currently has a diabetic foot ulcer. How should the
nurse account for this patient's health status when planning care during INH treatment? - ANSWER:
The patient will require vigilant monitoring of blood glucose levels.
INH treatment constitutes a risk for hyperglycemia and close monitoring of blood glucose levels is
thus indicated. This patient's history will not likely impact the chosen route for the drug and insulin
therapy can be safely continued. The patient will be vulnerable to other infections for the foreseeable
future, but he will not likely be immunocompromised to the degree that positive-pressure isolation is
required. (less)
A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. The nurse is preparing to teach the
client about the medication. What must the nurse include in the education plan? - ANSWER: Take
precautions to prevent photosensitivity.
Caution the client about possible photosensitivity and encourage the client to take precautions to
avoid sunlight or ultraviolet light. A forgotten dose may be taken as soon as it is remembered, but not
if it is almost time for the next dose. Some vitamins also can decrease the absorption of ciprofloxacin;
they should be taken at least 2 hours before or after the administration of ciprofloxacin, never along
with the drug. The client need not avoid dry areas, as the drug is not known to increase the risk for
asthma. (less)
Amy M. Karch 9781496318213 ALL Chapters .
Before the selection of an aminoglycoside to treat a client's wound infection, what would the nurse
expect the physician to order? - ANSWER: Culture and sensitivity
The choice of aminoglycoside depends on local susceptibility patterns and specific organisms causing
an infection.
A client has a diagnosis of otitis media and has just begun antibiotic treatment. The client reports
otalgia and has asked for medication. The nurse should anticipate the administration of: - ANSWER:
acetaminophen (Tylenol).
Tylenol is the first-line analgesic for most cases of otalgia accompanying otitis. Opioids and ketorolac
are not normally indicated.
Streptococcus pneumonia is an example of gram-negative bacteria. - ANSWER: False
Streptococcus pneumonia is a gram-positive bacterium.
The nurse knows that pseudomembranous colitis is a superinfection of fluoroquinolones, especially
when they are administered in high doses, because these medications have what effect in the body? -
ANSWER: They disrupt the microbial flora of the body.
Pseudomembranous colitis is a superinfection that occurs when the antibiotic disrupts the normal
flora, causing a secondary infection or superinfection.
A patient with septicemia is administered cefotaxime sodium (Claforan). How is this medication
excreted? - ANSWER: It is excreted by the kidneys.
Cefotaxime sodium is excreted by the kidneys. Cefotaxime is not excreted by the lungs, liver, or skin.
The nurse receives a call from a client who is taking clindamycin (Cleocin) and reports of a burning
feeling when swallowing. The nurse knows that the client has developed which adverse reaction
related to this medication? - ANSWER: esophagitis
The client reports esophagitis (an inflammation of the esophagus) that may be seen in clients taking
clindamycin. The pain is in the client's throat, thus it is not gastritis. It also does not describe nausea.
Peptic ulcer is not a common adverse reaction to clindamycin. (less)
The nurse is providing care for a teenager with otitis media. When assessing the patient for
potentially adverse effects of Cortisporin Otic, what question should the nurse ask? - ANSWER: "Have
you noticed any loss of hearing since you started taking the drops?"
It is necessary to assess the patient taking Cortisporin Otic for signs of hearing loss due to ototoxicity.
Fever, bleeding, and headaches are not typical adverse effects.
A patient has been admitted to the intensive care unit with signs and symptoms of sepsis and
preliminary results of the patient's initial blood cultures reveal the presence of methicillin-resistant
Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA). This finding is an indication for treatment with? - ANSWER:
daptomycin.
Daptomycin is FDA approved for treatment of bacteremia due to S. aureus (including MRSA).
Ciprofloxacin, levofloxacin and polymyxin B are not typically used in cases of MRSA sepsis. (less)
, A nurse teaching the patient with tuberculosis (TB) should include the following information about
ethambutol: - ANSWER: It can cause optic neuritis.
One of the most severe adverse reactions to ethambutol is optic neuritis, which is a decrease in visual
acuity and changes in color perception. The other options are not known adverse reactions to
ethambutol. (less)
A patient is allergic to penicillin and has been diagnosed with a genitourinary infection caused by
Chlamydia trachomatis. Which of the following medications will be administered? - ANSWER:
Erythromycin (Ery-Tab)
A patient who is diagnosed with a genitourinary infection that is caused by trachomatis and who is
allergic to penicillin should be administered erythromycin (Ery-Tab). Acamprosate calcium is
administered as a substance abuse deterrent, not in place of penicillin. Atazanavir (Reyataz) is an
antiviral agent that is used to treat HIV infection, not Chlamydia trachomatis. Flumazenil is a
benzodiazepine antagonist and not used for Chlamydia trachomatis. (less)
A patient is hospitalized due to noncompliance with an antitubercular drug treatment. Which of the
following is most important for the nurse to do? - ANSWER: Observe the patient taking the
medications
Directly observed therapy in which a health care provider observes the patient taking each dose of
anti-TB drugs is recommended for all drug regimens and is considered mandatory in this case. The
medications are not administered parenterally. The family should be instructed on the medication
regime, but this action is not imperative in maintaining compliance. The patient should not be taking
her/his own medications. (less)
If a nurse needs to administer otic preparations in both of the patient's ears, how long should the
nurse wait to place drops in the second ear? (Choose one) - ANSWER: At least 5 minutes
If medication is needed in the other ear, it is best to wait at least 5 minutes after instillation of the
first ear drops before administering drops to the other ear.
Chest radiography and sputum sample microscopy have confirmed a diagnosis of TB in a 40-year-old
man who has a history of type 1 diabetes and who currently has a diabetic foot ulcer. How should the
nurse account for this patient's health status when planning care during INH treatment? - ANSWER:
The patient will require vigilant monitoring of blood glucose levels.
INH treatment constitutes a risk for hyperglycemia and close monitoring of blood glucose levels is
thus indicated. This patient's history will not likely impact the chosen route for the drug and insulin
therapy can be safely continued. The patient will be vulnerable to other infections for the foreseeable
future, but he will not likely be immunocompromised to the degree that positive-pressure isolation is
required. (less)
A client is prescribed ciprofloxacin for a urinary tract infection. The nurse is preparing to teach the
client about the medication. What must the nurse include in the education plan? - ANSWER: Take
precautions to prevent photosensitivity.
Caution the client about possible photosensitivity and encourage the client to take precautions to
avoid sunlight or ultraviolet light. A forgotten dose may be taken as soon as it is remembered, but not
if it is almost time for the next dose. Some vitamins also can decrease the absorption of ciprofloxacin;
they should be taken at least 2 hours before or after the administration of ciprofloxacin, never along
with the drug. The client need not avoid dry areas, as the drug is not known to increase the risk for
asthma. (less)
