HESI PRACTICE EXAM-PHARM
315*67 QUESTIONS AND
ANSWERS
Which client should the nurse identify as being at
highest risk for complications during the use of an
opioid analgesic? - answer A young adult with
inflammatory bowel disease.
Rationale:
The principal indication for opioid use is acute
pain, and a client with inflammatory bowel disease
is at risk for toxic megacolon or paralytic ileus
related to slowed peristalsis, a side effect of
morphine. Adverse effects of morphine do not pose
as great a risk for clients with diabetes or a
fracture as for the client with bowel disease.
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis
(Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with heart failure.
Which intervention should the nurse implement
prior to administering the digoxin? - answer
Assess the serum potassium level.
Rationale:
,Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will
precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving
digoxin. The nurse should monitor the client's
serum potassium levels. Blood pressure and
respiratory rate will not inform the nurse about
potential safety issues with digitalis.
A client with hyperlipidemia receives a prescription
for niacin (Niaspan). Which client teaching is most
important for the nurse to provide? - answer
Expected duration of flushing.
Rationale:
Flushing of the face and neck, lasting up to an
hour, is a frequent reason for discontinuing niacin.
Inclusion of this effect in client teaching may
promote compliance in taking the medication.
While nutrition tips and managing pruritis are
worthwhile instructions to help clients minimize or
cope with normal side effects associated with
niacin (Niaspan), flushing is intense and causes the
most concern for the client.
A client who was prescribed atorvastatin (Lipitor)
one month ago calls the triage nurse at the clinic
complaining of muscle pain and weakness in his
legs. Which statement reflects the correct drug-
specific teaching the nurse should provide to this
client? - answer Make an appointment to see the
,healthcare provider, because muscle pain may be
an indication of a serious side effect.
Rationale:
Myopathy, suggested by the leg pain and
weakness, is a serious, and potentially life-
threatening, complication of Lipitor, and should be
evaluated immediately by the healthcare provider.
An antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with
peptic ulcer disease. The nurse knows that the
purpose of this medication is to - answer maintain
a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
Rationale:
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric
acids and keep pH of 3.5 or above which is
necessary for pepsinogen inactivity.
Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the
client to observe for a controlled-release
oxycodone prescription? - answer Every 12 hours.
Rationale:
A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-
acting analgesia to relieve moderate to severe
pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours
, provides the best around-the-clock pain
management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not
prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or as
needed schedule. Using a schedule of every 4 to 6
hours may jeopardize patient safety due to
cumulative effects.
A client with osteoarthritis receives a new
prescription for celecoxib (Celebrex) orally for
symptom management. The nurse notes the client
is allergic to sulfa. Which action is most important
for the nurse to implement prior to administering
the first dose? - answer Notify the healthcare
provider.
Rationale:
Celebrex contains a sulfur molecule, which can
lead to an allergic reaction in individuals who are
sensitive to sulfonamides, so the healthcare
provider should be notified of the client's allergies.
The nurse is assessing a client who is experiencing
anaphylaxis from an insect sting. Which
prescription should the nurse prepare to
administer this client? - answer Epinephrine.
Rationale:
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