NSG 533 Advanced Pharmacology Test 1 Week 4
Latest Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam 220
Questions and 100% Verified Correct Answers
Guaranteed A+
A 22-year-old woman with SAD has significant improvement in anxiety after 14 weeks of
treatment with sertraline. How long should she remain on sertraline?
A. Discontinue now
B. Additional 3 months
C. Additional 6 months
D. Additional 1-2 years
E. Lifetime therapy - CORRECT ANSWER: C
A 23-year-old married white woman comes to the outpatient psychiatric clinic
complaining of decreased sleep, decreased appetite, decreased concentration,
depressed
mood, thoughts of death, and lack of interest in activities for 6 weeks' duration. She has
no history of psychiatric illness and takes no medications except for Ortho-Tri Cyclen Lo
daily. Based upon the patients symptoms, choose the best medication to treat this
patient.
A. Nefazodone 100 mg po twice daily
B. Paroxetine 20 mg po daily
C. St. John's wort 300 mg po three times daily
D. Amitriptyline 25 mg at bedtime - CORRECT ANSWER: B
A 23-year-old otherwise healthy woman with GAD has no past history of drug or alcohol
abuse and no family history of substance abuse. She is started on lorazepam 0.5 mg
three times daily. Which of the following side effects will you warn her about?
a. Risk of withdrawal symptoms upon discontinuation
, b. Sedation
c. Anterograde amnesia
d. Slowed reaction time
e. All of the above - CORRECT ANSWER: E
A 26-year-old African American man with SAD has been stable on sertraline 100 mg/day
for
the past year. He reports to the clinic today with complaints of increased anxiety,
agitation, and
nausea. Upon further examination, you notice he last filled his sertraline Rx (90-day
supply) 4
months ago. Medications: Ibuprofen 400 mg as needed for joint pain. He reports taking
sertraline
most days but ran out 4 days ago. What is most likely going on with AS?
A. Serotonin syndrome
B. Serotonin withdrawal
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
D. Relapse of SAD
E. Rebound anxiety - CORRECT ANSWER: B
A 26-year-old man with a history of depression has been taking sertraline 200 mg/day
for 12 weeks with no response. The patient has no other complications. The physician
asks for your recommendation. The most reasonable recommendation would be to:
A. Increase sertraline
B. Add fluoxetine
C. Switch to amitriptyline
D. Change to venlafaxine
E. Decrease sertraline - CORRECT ANSWER: D
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