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Psychopharmacology drugs the brain and behavior 3rd edition meyer nursing test bank
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Psychopharmacology drugs the brain and behavior 3rd edition meyer nursing test bank
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Ch 4 Psychopharmacology Test Bank1. Which of the following medications would be an appropriate PRN
medication for an individuals with anxiety symptoms?
A. Buspirone
B. Alprazolam C. Fluoxetine
D. Sertraline: ANSWER: B --Benzodiazepam CNS depressant with quick onset of
relaxation
2. A client who takes haloperidol begins to show tremors and a shuffling gait.
Which of the following PRN medications should the nurse chose to administer
for these symptoms?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Diazepam
C. Benztropine
D. Amoxapine: ANSWER: C client is exhibiting signs of extrapyramidal syndrome
(EPS)
3. A child is taking guanfacine for ADHD. Which of the following would be part
of the client education associated with administration of this medication?
A. Do not take with foods that contain tyramine
B. Always use sunblock when outdoors
C. Report for blood tests once a month
D. Do not discontinue medication abruptly: ANSWER: D Alpha Agonist
(stimulates receptor)
4. 1. The nurse manager on the psychiatric unit was explaining to the new
staff the differences between typical and atypical antipsychotics. The nurse
correctly states that atypical antipsychotics:
A. Remain in the system longer
B. Act more quickly to reduce delusions
C. Produce fewer extrapyramidal effects
D. Are risk free for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS): ANS: C Atypica
antipsychotics produce less D2blockade; thus movement disorders are less of a
problem. No evidence suggests that the medication remains in the system longer
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, Ch 4 Psychopharmacology Test Bank
nor that it acts more quickly to reduce delusions. The atypicals are not risk free
for
NMS
5. 2. The nurse would assess for neuroleptic malignant syndrome (NMS) if a
patient on haloperidol (Haldol) develops a:
A. 30 mm Hg decrease in blood pressure reading
B. Respiratory rate of 24 respirations per minute
C. Temperature reading of 104° F
D. Pulse rate of 70 beats per minute: ANS: C Increased temperature is the
cardinal sign of NMS. This BP is not a significant feature of NMS. There are no
significant findings to support the options related to respirations or pulse rate.
6. 3. A patient taking fluphenazine (Prolixin) complains of dry mouth and
blurred vision. What would the nurse assess as the likely cause of these
symptoms?
A. Decreased dopamine at receptor sites
B. Blockade of histamine
C. Cholinergic blockade
D. Adrenergic blocking: ANS: C Fluphenazine administration produces blockade
of cholinergic receptors giving rise to anticholinergic effects, such as dry mouth,
blurred vision, and constipation.
7. 4. Which behavior displayed by a patient receiving a typical antipsychotic
medication would be assessed as displaying behaviors characteristic of
tardive dyskinesia (TD)?
A. Grimacing and lip smacking
B. Falling asleep in the chair and refusing to eat lunch
C. Experiencing muscle rigidity and tremors
D. Having excessive salivation and drooling: ANS: A
TD manifests as abnormal movements of voluntary muscle groups after a prolonged
period of dopamine
blockade. Movements may affect any muscle group, but muscles of the face, mouth,
tongue, and digits are commonly affected. Falling asleep is reflective of the sedative
effect of these medications. Muscle rigidity and drooling reflect EPS caused from
imbalance between dopamine and acetylcholine.
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