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WGU D027 Objective Assessment Study Guide (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A $11.49   Add to cart

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WGU D027 Objective Assessment Study Guide (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A

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WGU D027 Objective Assessment Study Guide (Latest 2024/ 2025 Update) Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations| Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A

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  • August 26, 2024
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WGU D027 Objective Assessment Study Guide (Latest 2024/
2025 Update) Advanced Pathopharmacological Foundations|
Questions and Verified Answers| 100% Correct| Grade A



Which of the following is not a cellular function? - ANSWER Combustion
-
All living cells must absorb and metabolize sources of energy, excrete waste and by-products of
those processes, and reproduce to continue offspring. Pyrotechnic processes (i.e. combustion)
are generally metaphorical.




What are mitochondria responsible for? - ANSWER Energy production -
Mitochondria are the energy production organelles of the cell responsible for the major
metabolic processes of creating units of energy (e.g., ATP).




Which if the following can cause edema? - ANSWER Increased lymphatic
pressure -
Decreased vascular and lymphatic pressure does not generally result in the movement and
accumulation of fluid into extravascular spaces. Increased plasma pressure in the vascular
results in hypertension, while increased lymphatic pressure will readily result in the pooling of
lymphatic drainage into third spaces (i.e. edema).




Which of the following best describes the result of cellular reproduction? - ANSWER
Two diploid cells, called daughter cells, are produced -

,The resultant offspring of cellular reproduction is the creation of two daughter cells after the
completion of mitosis or meiosis. Interphase is the longest period that a cell spends its life cycle
and is the preparatory stage before cellular reproduction. Anaphase is the separation of genetic
materials to the opposing centromeres of the cell, followed by telophase.




What indicates hypokalemia? - ANSWER Serum K decreases to less than
3.5 -
Normal serum potassium (K), also known as eukalemia, is generally 3.5-5.5 mEq/L, with some
variations of +/- 0.1-0.3 mEq/L depending on the laboratory testing, age, and other potential
patient-specific conditions and variations. Alterations in fluid volume or the administration of a
supplement alone do not necessarily contribute to the development of hypokalemia.




What is an example of both hyperplasia and hypertrophy? - ANSWER
Uterine enlargement due to pregnancy -
Hyperplasia is the increase in the number of cells of an organ or tissue, while hypertrophy is the
enlargement of the cells of a given organ or tissue without a change in the number of cells.
Muscle cells grow and enlarge (hypertrophy) in response to increased work or stress from
exercise or increased cardiovascular pressures. When a liver is damaged or part of it is removed,
it is the one internal solid organ capable of regeneration to repair itself creating more cells
(hyperplasia). During pregnancy, the uterus must both grow to create more cells and enlarge
those existing cells in preparation for the support of a fetus.




What regulates the sodium balance? - ANSWER Aldosterone -
Aldosterone is a regulatory hormone produced by the adrenal glands to affect the kidneys'
regulation of sodium, potassium, and water excretion.

,What is the alteration if the extracellular fluid volume is less than normal? - ANSWER
Hypotonic -
In hypotonic states, the cell size is increased as a result of water moving from the extracellular
fluid (ECF) into the cell to increase intracellular fluid. Iso- or normotonic states are a balanced
state between intra- and extracellular fluid volumes. Hypertonic states cause water to shift out
of the cell to increase the ECF above normal.




When in excess, what do buffers absorb? - ANSWER Hydrogen -
Excesses of acid or base, H+ or hydroxyl ion (OH−), are absorbed for the purpose of maintaining
pH homeostasis (pH of 7.38-7.42)




Which of the following would a patient with metabolic acidosis have? - ANSWER
pH below 7.35; Bicarbonate level below 22 mEq/L -
The diagnosis of metabolic acidosis requires that the testing of arterial blood finds that the pH is
less than 7.35 and the bicarbonate level is less than 22 mEq/L.




What is the process by which RNA directs the synthesis of polypeptides? - ANSWER
Translation -
Translation refers to this process. Transcription is another process in which RNA is synthesized.
Mutation means genetic material has been modified through inheritance. Creation is a term
that does not apply in this context.

, What is the recurrence rate for autosomal dominant disease? - ANSWER
50% -
For a couple in which one or both partners are affected by the disease, the chance of each child
being heterozygous affected is 50%.




Which of the following statements is true about autosomal recessive disease? - ANSWER
It affects both men and women equally -
A criterion for recognizing the inheritance of an autosomal recessive disease is that men and
women will be affected by it in equal measure.




What is the proportion of the population affected by a disease at the specific point in time? -
ANSWER Prevalence rate -
Incidence rate refers to how many new cases there are of a disease within a period of time
divided by the number of the population's individuals. The prevalence rate is affected by the
incidence rate and how long the affected patients survive. Risk factor is anything that could lead
to disease. Relative risk is the measure of a risk factor effect.




Which of the following should be completed when a disease is multifactorial but has a larger
genetic component? - ANSWER Get a thorough family history -
Environment and lifestyle choices may influence a disease, but diseases such as breast cancer
are hereditary, so the family history should be reviewed.

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