FNP BOARD EXAM – Questions & Answers (100% Correct)
FNP BOARD EXAM – Questions & Answers (100% Correct)
A 44-year-old premenopausal woman has an acute, painful compression fracture of a lumbar vertebra. Clinical evaluation shows osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most likely underl...
, FNP BOARD EXAM – Questions &
Answers (100% Correct)
A 44-year-old premenopausal woman has an acute, painful compression fracture of
a lumbar vertebra. Clinical evaluation shows osteoporosis. Which of the following is
the most likely underlying condition causing the fracture?
1.
Milk alkali syndrome
2.
Cushing's disease
3.
Paget disease of bone
4.
Chronic adrenal insufficiency - ANSWER - Cushing's disease:
A pituitary adenoma that is secreting excessive adreno cortico trophic hormone
causes Cushing's disease, one cause of hypercortisolism. Causes of premenopausal
osteoporosis in women include hypercortisolism, celiac disease,
hyperparathyroidism, alcohol abuse, inherited collagen disease (e.g., Marfan, Ehlers-
Danlos syndromes), HIV infection, and kidney or liver disease.
An intravenous bisphosphonate is the preferred initial therapy for postmenopausal
osteoporosis in a woman who has which of the following?
1.
Celiac disease
2.
Esophageal motility disorder
3.
Ulcerative colitis
4.
Lactose intolerance - ANSWER - Esophageal motility disorder
A 56-year-old woman has a 1-week history of pain in her left hip and right posterior
chest. Serum calcium is 11 mg/dL. Radiography shows osteolytic bone lesions in the
painful areas. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1.
Hyperparathyroidism
2.
Ankylosing spondylitis
3.
Osteoporosis
4.
Breast carcinoma - ANSWER - Breast carcinoma
In the patient who has malignancy, bone metastases tend to be osteolytic or
osteoblastic. Osteolytic metastases are common in breast cancer and myeloma. In
contrast, prostate cancer metastases in bone are osteoblastic.
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