A physical therapist assistant contemplates the necessary amount of
force to overcome friction when performing mechanical lumbar traction
using a non-split traction table. What percentage of a patient's body
weight would be MOST representative of this value? - Precise Answer
✔✔25%
A physical therapist assistant works with a 75-year-old female that
presents with residual periodic loss of balance secondary to a recent
stroke. The patient has minor residual strength deficits in her affected
upper and lower extremities and will need an assistive device for
ambulation. Based on the patient's present status what would be the
MOST appropriate assistive device? - Precise Answer ✔✔Rolling
walker
A 52-year-old female is referred to physical therapy with right shoulder
pathology. The patient reports a gradual onset of pain beginning six
months ago with a progressive loss of range of motion and strength,
most notably in lateral rotation and abduction. The patient reports an
inability to perform a number of activities of daily living including any
tasks requiring the arm to be lifted overhead. Which medical condition is
MOST consistent with this scenario? - Precise Answer ✔✔Adhesive
capsulitis
,During a family meeting in an acute rehabilitation hospital a 26-year-old
male with complete C7 tetraplegia asks a variety of questions about self
care and mobility expectations. With an uncomplicated recovery, the
patient can expect lower extremity dressing to be performed with what
level of assist in bed? - Precise Answer ✔✔Modified independence
A patient attending her third physical therapy session transitions from a
hospital bed to standing in preparation for ambulation activities. Which
blood pressure response would BEST support the physical therapist
assistant's decision to return the patient to a recumbent position? -
Precise Answer ✔✔A decrease in systolic blood pressure greater than
20 mm Hg after moving from a supine position to a sitting or standing
position or a decrease in diastolic blood pressure greater than 10 mm Hg
is typically indicative of orthostatic hypotension
A physical therapist assistant is treating an 82-year-old female that lives
independently in a single story house. The therapist uses the Tinetti
Performance Oriented Mobility Assessment as a screening tool to
determine if the patient is at an increased risk for falling. What is the
PRIMARY method this tool uses to assess fall risk? - Precise Answer
✔✔Gait and balance
single task screening tool used to assess standing balance and risk of
falling. A person is required to stand upright with a static base of
support. A yardstick is positioned to measure the forward distance that a
patient can reach without moving the feet. Three trials are performed
and averaged together. A patient that falls below the age appropriate
range for functional reach has an increased risk for falling. - Precise
Answer ✔✔The Functional Reach test
,is a tool designed to assess a patient's risk for falling. There are fourteen
tasks, each scored on an ordinal scale from 0-4. These tasks include
static activities, transitional movements, and dynamic activities in sitting
and standing positions. The maximum score is a 56 with a score less
than 45 indicating an increased risk for falling. This tool can be used as a
one-time examination or as an ongoing tool to monitor a patient who
may be at risk for falls. - Precise Answer ✔✔The Berg Balance scale
is a functional performance screening tool used to assess a person's level
of mobility and balance. The person initially sits in a supported chair
with a firm surface, transfers to a standing position, and walks
approximately 10 feet. The patient must then turn around without
external support, walk back towards the chair, and return to a sitting
position. The patient is scored based on amount of postural sway,
excessive movements, reaching for support, side stepping or other signs
of loss of balance. Patients who are independent can complete the multi-
task process in 10 seconds or less. Patients that require 30 seconds or
more are at a high risk for a fall. - Precise Answer ✔✔The Timed Get
Up and Go test
A physical therapist assistant educates a patient about their medical
condition during a physical therapy session. During the discussion, the
physical therapist assistant mentions that most patients experience
resolution of symptoms when they stop growing. Which medical
condition is MOST consistent with this scenario? - Precise Answer
✔✔Osgood-Schlatter disease
, is a condition characterized by malalignment of the femoral head within
the acetabulum. The condition develops during the last trimester in utero
and is often treated with the use of a harness, bracing, splinting or
traction. The malalignment does not resolve with skeletal maturity,
although it can be effectively treated through conservative or surgical
methods. - Precise Answer ✔✔Congenital hip dysplasia
is a self-limiting condition that results from repetitive traction on the
tibial tuberosity apophysis. Symptoms include point tenderness over the
patella tendon at the insertion on the tibial tubercle, antalgic gait, and
pain. - Precise Answer ✔✔Osgood-Schlatter disease
is a general term describing pain or discomfort in the anterior knee.
Adolescents are at increased risk for developing patellofemoral
syndrome, although reaching skeletal maturity does not necessarily lead
to the resolution of symptoms. - Precise Answer ✔✔Patellofemoral
syndrome
is characterized by degeneration of the femoral head due to a disturbance
in the blood supply (i.e., avascular necrosis). This type of structural
condition does not resolve with skeletal maturity. - Precise Answer
✔✔Legg-Calve-Perthes disease
A physical therapist assistant works with a patient on abdominal
strengthening. The physical therapist assistant attempts to have the
patient complete a modified sit-up with their head and shoulders
positioned on a wedge while in supine. What is the MOST likely
rationale associated with the use of the wedge? - Precise Answer
✔✔Weak rectus abdominis
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