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NR 511 Differential Diagnosis And Primary Care Practicum NR511 Davis Edge Final |370 Questions $11.00
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NR 511 Differential Diagnosis And Primary Care Practicum NR511 Davis Edge Final |370 Questions
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NR 511 Differential Diagnosis And Primary Care Practicum NR511 Final |370 Questions Joanne, age 23, wants to use some form of birth control, but because she is getting married next year, she wants to be able to stop the birth control method after the wedding and have her fertility restored almos...

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NR 511 Differential Diagnosis
And Primary Care Practicum
NR511 Davis Edge Final
370 Questions
Joanne, age 23, wants to use some form of birth control, but because she is getting married next
year, she wants to be able to stop the birth control method after the wedding and have her
fertility restored almost immediately. Which method do you recommend for her?


1. Birth control pills.
2. Vaginal ring.
3. Depot medroxyprogesterone acetate (DMPA) injections.
4. Diaphragm.
1. Diaphragm.




Mrs. Thomas, age 69, comes to your office for the results of her dual-energy x-ray
absorptiometry (DXA) scan. She reports that her mother had osteopenia before she died. The
DXA scan results show a T score of -2.7 in the hip and -2.8 in the spine. You explain to her that
her results show:


1. Normal bone density.
2. Osteopenia.
3. Osteoporosis.
4. Osteoarthritis.
1. Osteoporosis.

,There are many causes of amenorrhea. In ballet dancers and marathon runners, which anatomical
structure is the probable cause?


1. Outflow tract.
2. Ovary.
3. Anterior pituitary.
4. Hypothalamus.
Hypothalamus




Laura, age 65, presents to the office complaining of vaginal bleeding for 12 days. She reports she
has not had a menses since the age of 52 and that this bleeding looks much like her menses used
to look. The initial workup for postmenopausal bleeding (PMB) should include:


1. A pregnancy test.
2. A diagnostic pelvic laparoscopy.
3. An endometrial biopsy.
4. A colonoscopy.
1. An endometrial biopsy.




Ms. Russo, age 59, is a postmenopausal woman who comes to your office complaining of
vaginal dryness. She has been sexually active with a new partner and says that penetration is
very painful. She has tried over-the-counter lubricants but has not found one that works. Her
history is significant for hypertension only. After examination and wet prep, you diagnose her
with atrophic vaginitis. The treatment for this condition includes:


1. Terconazole cream
2. Metronidazole gel.
3. Vaginal estrogen cream.
4. Hydrocortisone ointment.

,1. Vaginal estrogen cream.




Susan, age 35, has been diagnosed with fibrocystic breast disease. Which of the following may
exacerbate the condition?


1. A daily dose of aspirin.
2. Spicy foods.
3. Chocolate.
4. Wearing tight bras.
Chocolate
A 13-year-old obese (body mass index [BMI] above the 95th percentile) boy reports low-grade
left knee pain for the past 2 months. He denies antecedent trauma but admits to frequent
"horseplay" with his friends. The pain has progressively worsened, and he is now unable to bear
weight at all on his left leg. His current complaints include left groin, thigh, and medial knee pain
and tenderness. His examination demonstrates negative drawer, Lachman, and McMurray tests;
left hip with decreased internal rotation and abduction; and external hip rotation with knee
flexion. Based on the above scenario, the nurse practitioner should suspect:
1. A left meniscal tear.
2. A left anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) tear.
3. A slipped capital femoral epiphysis (SCFE).
4. Osgood-Schlatter disease.
Option 3: SCFE is a displacement of the femoral head relative to the femoral neck that occurs
through the physis (growth plate) of the femur. The vast majority of clients with this condition
are obese, as the added weight increases shear stress across the physis. The mean age at
diagnosis is 12 years for females and 13.5 years for males. Surgery is often required via in situ
pin fixation (single screw) to stabilize the growth plate to prevent further slippage and avoid
complications.




In assessing the skeletal muscles, the nurse practitioner turns the patient's forearm so that the
palm is up. This is called:
1. Supination.

, 2. Pronation.
3. Abduction.
4. Eversion.
Option 1: Turning the forearm so that the palm is up is called supination.




Cass, age 67, tells the nurse practitioner (NP) that she has been diagnosed with a condition that
causes sudden flares of pain, swelling, and redness of the joints in her toes. She cannot remember
the name of the diagnosis, but she knows it is caused by urate crystals that "get stuck in the joint
and cause pain." She is on hydrochlorothiazide (HCTZ) for management of her hypertension.
The NP should suspect a diagnosis of:
1. Septic arthritis.
2. Gout.
3. Rheumatoid arthritis.
4. Charcot neuro-osteoarthropathy.
Option 2: Gout is a disorder that involves abnormal metabolism of uric acid and results in
hyperuricemia. High concentrations of urate precipitate into crystals that collect in tissue and
joint spaces and can cause pain and inflammation. The patient's symptoms may be aggravated by
the use of HCTZ.




Matthew, age 52, is a chef who just severed 2 of his fingers with a meat cutter. You would
recommend that he:
1. Wrap the severed fingers tightly in a dry towel for transport to the emergency department with
him.
2. Leave the severed fingers at the scene because fingers cannot be reattached.
3. Immediately freeze the severed fingers for reattachment in the near future.
4. Wrap the fingers in a clean, damp cloth; seal them in a plastic bag; and place the bag in an ice
water bath.

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