CTMT 2336 - TEST 1
STUDY GUIDE
What are two ethical theories? - Answer Utilitarianism (Consequentialism) and
Deontology (non-consequentialism)
Describe Utilitarianism - Answer Rightness of an action is measured by consequences -
the greatest good to the greatest number
Describe Deontology - Answer Review a situation based on rules consequences are not
taken in to consideration
What are the six ethical principals? - Answer autonomy, non-maleficence, beneficence,
justice, paternalism, fidelity.
Autonomy - Answer Independence, self reliance, ability to decide
Non-maleficence - Answer to do no harm or no action
Beneficence - Answer doing of good, preventing harm, promotion of good
Justice - Answer equitable, fair or just conduct in dealing with others
Paternalism - Answer Treatment of a person as a child or incompetent
Fidelity - Answer Strict observance of promises or duties, loyalty and faithfulness to
others
Assault - Answer any willful or threat to inflict injury on another person; any intentional
display of force that would give the victim reason to fear or expect immediate bodily
harm
Battery - Answer any unlawful touching of another, that is without justification or cause
(start IV w/o permission)
False Imprisonment - Answer Conscious restraint of the freedom of another without
proper authorization, privilege or consent, unwanted confinement.
Negligence - Answer The failure of a health care professional to meet his or her own
responsibility to a patient with resultant injury to the patient
What four elements must be proven for negligence to exist.? - Answer 1) Is there a duty
to the patient by the technologist; 2) Was there a breach of duty by an act or failure to
act; 3) Actual proof of a commensurable injury; 4) Relationship between the injury and
,the breach of duty
Res Ipsa Loquitur - Answer The thing speaks for itself - patient injured through no fault
of their own while in complete control of another
Respondeat Superior - Answer The master speaks for the servant - The
hospital/Physician is responsible for its employees
What are the three types of consent? - Answer Simple expressed consent; implied
consent; informed consent
Explain simple expressed consent - Answer Obtaining a patient's permission to perform
a procedure - written or oral
Explain Implied Consent - Answer Take place in an emergency situations, because the
person's capabilities are compromised. The decision a reasonable person would make if
they were confronted with the same medical situation
Explain Informed Consent - Answer Usually written, required when a patient is subject
to any type of invasive procedure.
What information must the technologist document? - Answer All information regarding
the patient, supplies used, any or no reaction, observation, injection sites, times of all
entries, incident reports, falls and errors.
HIPPA - Answer Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
What are the five rights to medication safety? - Answer Right drug, right dose, right
route, right time, right patient
Sterilization - Answer The removal of all microorganisms and their spores - items that
penetrate skin
Disinfection - Answer The removal of as many, microorganisms as possible - applies to
items that cant be sterilized.
What conditions places a patient at high risk for CT examinations? - Answer Aneuria,
chronic heart disease, recent myocardial infractions, renal disease, previous reaction
to contrast, history of allergies
Define Anticoagulants and give examples. - Answer Blood thinners, that prevent or
reduce coagulation of blood, prolong clotting time. EX. warfin (coumadin), heparin
What are narcotic medications designed to do? - Answer Pharmacological agents
producing a depressed level of consciousness and depressed level of respiration
What are two primary sedative used in CT? - Answer Opioids and Benzodiazapines.
Examples of opioids - Answer Demerll and morphine
, Examples of benzodiazapine - Answer Valium and versed
Define anti-platelet agents and give examples. - Answer Drugs used in patients with
acute ischemic event in the heart or brain. EX. asprin (acetylsalicylic acid); plavix
(clopicogrel)
Define Thrombolitic agents and give examples. - Answer Medications used to break a
clot. EX. altepase, streptokinase, Vrokinase
List the various lab reports for clotitng factors. - Answer Prothrombin Time(PT); Partial
Thrombolastin Time(PTT); Platelets; Internation Normalize Ration(INR)
Describe prothrombin time (PT) and its normal range. - Answer Measures activity of
coagulation in the plasma (11-14 seconds)
Describe partial thromboplastin time and its normal range. - Answer Blood substance
that aids in conversion of other clotting factors (25-35 seconds)
What is the normal range for platelet counts? - Answer 150,000 - 400,000 per m/l
Describe the international normalize ratio (INR) and its normal range. - Answer
Evaluates the ability of blood to clot properly. (normal range 1)
What is the acceptable range of INR for people on anti-coagulants? - Answer 2 - 3
What are the risks for abnormal INR lab reports? - Answer INR over 5 has increased risk
of bleeding; under 5 has increased risk of clotting.
What are the kidney lab values that are taken? - Answer BUN and creatinine
Describe BUN and its normal range. - Answer Blood Urine Nitrogen. Abnormal values
are associated with dehyreds. (normal range 7-25mg/dl)
Describe creatinine and its normal range. - Answer High values are associated with
renal impairment (normal range 0.6 - 1.7 mg/dl)
List the creatinin clearance values and test? - Answer Normal >90; poor function 15-30;
moderate function 30-60; Failure <15. True test for creatinine clearance is 24 hr urine
lab test.
Why is the creatinine clearance test used? - Answer A useful measure for estimating the
glomerula filtration rate (GFR) of the kidneys. Use the Cockcroft-Gault formula
Cockcroft-Gault Formula - Answer Female: (140 x age) x mass (kg) x 0.85; Male: 72 x
plasma creatinine (mg/dl)
What vital signs are taken on the patient? - Answer Oxygent Sat. rate, pulse rate,
respiration, blood pressure, temperature.
What are the four areas for temperature measurements? - Answer Oral, tympanic (ear),