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CAMPBELL BIOLOGY CH. #6 - 10 TEST BANK QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS

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CAMPBELL BIOLOGY CH. #6 - 10 TEST BANK QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED ANSWERS

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  • September 15, 2024
  • 109
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • Campbell biology
  • Campbell biology
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CAMPBELL BIOLOGY CH. #6 - 10 TEST
BANK QUESTIONS WITH VERIFIED
ANSWERS
Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

2) The advantage of light microscopy over electron microscopy is that
A) light microscopy provides for higher magnification than electron microscopy.
B) light microscopy provides for higher resolving power than electron microscopy.
C) light microscopy allows one to view dynamic processes in living cells.
D) light microscopy provides higher contrast than electron microscopy.
E) specimen preparation for light microcopy does not produce artifacts. Answer: C
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

3) A primary objective of cell fractionation is to
A) view the structure of cell membranes.
B) sort cells based on their size and weight.
C) determine the size of various organelles.
D) separate the major organelles so that their particular functions can be determined.
E) separate lipid-soluble from water-soluble molecules. Answer: D
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension


4) In the fractionation of homogenized cells using centrifugation, the primary factor that
determines whether a specific cellular component ends up in the supernatant or the
pellet is
A) the relative solubility of the component.
B) the size and weight of the component.
C) the percentage of carbohydrates in the component.
D) the presence or absence of nucleic acids in the component.
E) the presence or absence of lipids in the component. Answer: B
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension
5) Which of the following correctly lists the order in which cellular components will be
found in the pellet when homogenized cells are treated with increasingly rapid spins in a
centrifuge?
A) ribosomes, nucleus, mitochondria
B) chloroplasts, ribosomes, vacuoles
C) nucleus, ribosomes, chloroplasts

,D) vacuoles, ribosomes, nucleus
E) nucleus, mitochondria, ribosomes Answer: E
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Application/Analysis

6) Green fluorescent protein (GFP) can be used to fluorescently label a specific protein
in cells by genetically engineering cells to synthesize the target protein fused to GFP.
What is the advantage of using GFP fusions to visualize specific proteins, instead of
staining cells with fluorescently labeled probes that bind to the target protein?
A) GFP fusions enable one to track changes in the location of the protein in living cells;
staining usually requires preserved cells.
B) GFP fusions enable higher resolution than staining with fluorescent probes.
C) GFP permits the position of the protein in the cell more precisely than fluorescent
probes.
D) GFP permits visualization of protein-protein interactions; fluorescent probes do not.
E) GFP fusions are not subject to artifacts; fluorescent probes may introduce
background artifacts. Answer: A
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Application/Analysis

7) What is the reason that a modern electron microscope (TEM) can resolve biological
images to the subnanometer level, as opposed to tens of nanometers achievable for the
best super-resolution light microscope?
A) The focal length of the electron microscope is significantly longer.
B) Contrast is enhanced by staining with atoms of heavy metal.
C) Electron beams have much shorter wavelengths than visible light.
D) The electron microscope has a much greater ratio of image size to real size.
E) The electron microscope cannot image whole cells at one time. Answer: C
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Application/Analysis

8) What technique would be most appropriate to use to observe the movements of
condensed chromosomes during cell division?
A) light microscopy
B) scanning electron microscopy
C) transmission electron microscopy
D) confocal fluorescence microscopy
E) super-resolution fluorescence microscopy Answer: A
Topic: Concept 6.1

Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

9) All of the following are part of a prokaryotic cell except
A) DNA.

,B) a cell wall.
C) a plasma membrane.
D) ribosomes.
E) an endoplasmic reticulum. Answer: E
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

10) The volume enclosed by the plasma membrane of plant cells is often much larger
than the corresponding volume in animal cells. The most reasonable explanation for this
observation is that
A) plant cells are capable of having a much higher surface-to-volume ratio than animal
cells.
B) plant cells have a much more highly convoluted (folded) plasma membrane than
animal cells.
C) plant cells contain a large vacuole that reduces the volume of the cytoplasm.
D) animal cells are more spherical, whereas plant cells are elongated.
E) plant cells can have lower surface-to-volume ratios than animal cells because plant
cells synthesize their own nutrients. Answer: C
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Synthesis/Evaluation

11) A mycoplasma is an organism with a diameter between 0.1 and 1.0 µm. What does
the organism's size tell you about how it might be classified?
A) It must be a single-celled protist.
B) It must be a single-celled fungus.
C) It could be almost any typical bacterium.
D) It could be a typical virus.
E) It could be a very small bacterium. Answer: E
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Application/Analysis

12) Which of the following is a major cause of the size limits for certain types of cells?
A) limitation on the strength and integrity of the plasma membrane as cell size increases
B) the difference in plasma membranes between prokaryotes and eukaryotes
C) evolutionary progression in cell size; more primitive cells have smaller sizes
D) the need for a surface area of sufficient area to support the cell's metabolic needs
E) rigid cell walls that limit cell size expansion Answer: D
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

13) Which of the following statements concerning bacteria and archaea cells is correct?
A) Archaea cells contain small membrane-enclosed organelles; bacteria do not.
B) Archaea cells contain a membrane-bound nucleus; bacteria do not.

, C) DNA is present in both archaea cells and bacteria cells.
D) DNA is present in the mitochondria of both bacteria and archaea cells. Answer: A
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

14) The evolution of eukaryotic cells most likely involved
A) endosymbiosis of an aerobic bacterium in a larger host cell-the endosymbiont
evolved into mitochondria.
B) anaerobic archaea taking up residence inside a larger bacterial host cell to escape
toxic oxygen-the anaerobic bacterium evolved into chloroplasts.
C) an endosymbiotic fungal cell evolved into the nucleus.
D) acquisition of an endomembrane system, and subsequent evolution of mitochondria
from a portion of the Golgi. Answer: A
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

15) Prokaryotes are classified as belonging to two different domains. What are the
domains?
A) Bacteria and Eukarya
B) Bacteria and Archaea
C) Archaea and Protista
D) Bacteria and Protista
E) Bacteria and Fungi Answer: B
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Knowledge/Comprehension

16) If radioactive deoxythymidine triphosphate (dTTP) is added to a culture of rapidly
growing bacterial cells, where in the cell would you expect to find the greatest
concentration of radioactivity?
A) nucleus
B) cytoplasm
C) endoplasmic reticulum
D) nucleoid
E) ribosomes Answer: D
Topic: Concept 6.2

Skill: Application/Analysis

17) Which organelle or structure is absent in plant cells?
A) mitochondria
B) Golgi vesicles
C) microtubules
D) centrosomes
E) peroxisomes Answer: D

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