LMR GEORGETTE’S PMHNP CERTIFICATION EXAM LATEST WITH UPDATED QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED ANSWERS (GRADED A+)
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Course
LMR GEORGETTE’S PMHNP CERTIFICATION
Institution
LMR GEORGETTE’S PMHNP CERTIFICATION
LMR GEORGETTE’S PMHNP CERTIFICATION EXAM LATEST
WITH UPDATED QUESTIONS AND VERIFIED
ANSWERS (GRADED A+)
Mrs. Shea has come to the mental health center seeking
treatment for depression. She has a history of a suicide attempt
by overdose 1 month ago. She was started on imipramine
(tric...
Mrs. Shea has come to the mental health center seeking
treatment for depression. She has a history of a suicide attempt
by overdose 1 month ago. She was started on imipramine
(tricyclic antidepressant [TCA]) after that event but stopped taking
the medication 1 week later because it "did no good." The
PMHNP meets with Mrs. Shea to plan care with her. Which of the
following is the most appropriate initial action?
a. Asking Mrs. Shea how to help her
b. Providing client teaching about the long time frame for TCAs to
work
c. Contracting with Mrs. Shea for 6 sessions of individual therapy
d. Providing Mrs. Shea with feedback about how suicide might
affect her family - ANSWER-A. Asking the client how to help is an
aspect of assessment—all other answers are aspects of
interventions, which are not initial actions of the PMHNP.
In completing the PMHNP assessment for the Mrs. Shea, the
most appropriate lab test for the PMHNP to order at this time is
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a. CBC
b. TSH
c. Liver function tests
d. Electrolyte panel - ANSWER-C. Client overdosed and then was
placed on a medication that affects the liver. The PMHNP needs
to assess the client's liver function as an aspect of
care planning for her.
A client comes into the clinic with a longstanding history of
depression and chronic renal failure. He is on an antidepressant
and a diuretic and complains of increased depression, mild
confusion, irritability, and overall apathy from being too tired to do
anything. The best initial PMHNP action to take at this time is
a. Increase his dose of antidepressant medication to better
capture symptoms
b. Change him to another antidepressant for better symptom
control
c. Augment his antidepressant with an atypical antipsychotic
medication
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d. Order a comprehensive metabolic panel - ANSWER-D. Client
symptoms are consistent with electrolyte imbalance and a
physical cause of his symptoms must be ruled out first.
Sarah presents for her initial intake appointment with complaints
of depression. She is being treated for hypertension and asthma
by her primary care provider. Knowing that certain medications
can cause or exacerbate depression, you obtain a complete
medication history. Which of the following medications is known to
exacerbate or cause depression?
a. Omeprazole
b. Propranolol
c. Levothyroxine
d. Clarithromycin - ANSWER-B. Beta blockers can cause or
exacerbate depression.
When treating older adults, you should keep in mind that they are
more sensitive to issues of drug toxicity because of which of the
following reasons?
a. Decreased body fat
b. Increased liver capacity
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c. Decreased protein binding
d. Increased muscle concentration - ANSWER-C. Older adults
usually have decreased protein levels. Most psychotropic
medications are highly protein-bound. It is the unbound
(free) concentration of the drug that is active; the bound
concentration of the drug is inert. Thus, with
decreased protein available for binding, more free (active)
drug remains in the body, which then predisposes older
adults to toxicity.
Which known teratogenic effects can be caused by the common
psychotropic medications divalproex and lithium?
a. Divalproex—Epstein anomaly; lithium—cleft palate
b. Divalproex—spina bifida; lithium—Epstein anomaly
c. Divalproex—limb malformations; lithium—seizure disorder
d. Divalproex—mental retardation; lithium—spina bifida -
ANSWER-B. Divalproex can cause spina bifida and lithium
can cause Epstein's anomaly.
The study of what the body does to drugs is called
a. Pharmacodynamics
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