1. A 52 year-old male presents complaining of urinary frequency, with
hesitancy, and nocturia for the past few months. During his physical
examination, you note a nontender, non-enlarged prostate with an
isolated right posterior lobe nodule. Which of the following options is
most appropriate?
A. order a serum acid phosphatase level
B. initiate prazocin and schedule a follow-up appointment in 6 weeks
C. refer the patient for an ultrasound of the prostate and order a PSA
level
D. reassure the patient and schedule a follow-up appointment in six
months
E. initiate norfloxacin therapy for seven days and schedule follow-up in
twoweeks - Precise Answer ✔✔1. C. This patient has an isolated nodule
of the prostate gland — cancer until proven
otherwise. You should order an ultrasound and a PSA. BPH will present
as diffuse
enlargement, and not a discrete nodule.
2. Which term is used to describe the characteristic concave or "spoon-
shaped" nails of iron deficiency anemia?
A. leukonychia
B. koilonychias
,C. clubbing
D. onycholysis
E. paronychia - Precise Answer ✔✔2. B. Koilonychia is a spoon-
shaping of the nail itself. Clubbing is a thickening of the
nail bed which "lifts" the nail - it is a sign of increased TNF (tissue
necrosis factor), most
likely occurring in cystic fibrosis, bronchiectasis or lung cancer. A & D
are not real
words, (onychomycosis is the real term for fungal infection of the
nail)..E is paronychia
and is an infection of the nailbed.
3. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of the nephotic
syndrome?
A. proteinuria
B. hematuria
C. hypoalbuminemia
D. hyperlipidemia
E. generalized edema - Precise Answer ✔✔3. B. Hematuria is present in
NEPHRITIC syndrome. Nephrotic syndrome
characteristically includes proteinuria (>3.5 gm/day), with resulting low
serum albumin,
hyperlipidemia, hypertension, hypercoagulability, and generalized
edema (from oncotic
third-spacing)
, 4. A patient describes a history of recurrent bouts ofuveitis. Her
chemistry panel reveals elevated serum calcium and uric acid levels. Her
anergy screen is negative. Her chest x-ray deomstrates bilateral hilar
adenopathy. Which diagnosis is most likely?
A. Silicosis
B. Sarcoidosis
C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin deficiency
D. Histoplasmosis
E. Tuberculosis - Precise Answer ✔✔4. B. Sarcoid typically presents
with hilar lymphadenopathy and noncaseating
granulomas of the lungs (and other organs). In addition, patients may get
eye
involvement (uveitis). Elevations of ACE, Calcium and uric acid are
frequently seen.
5. A 34 year-old female presents complaining of symmetrical redness
and swelling of the small joints of her hands (PIPs and MCPs). She has
noted that the symptoms are worst in the morning. Her erythrocyte
sedimentation rate is elevated and her rheumatoid factor is negative.
Which of the following diagnosis is most likely?
A. progressive systemic sclerosis
B. CREST syndrome
C. osteoarthritis
D. rheumatoid arthritis
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