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APMLE Part 2 Exam || Questions & Solutions (100% Accurate) APMLE Part 2 Exam || Questions & Solutions (100% Accurate) The running gait cycle differs from the walking gait cycle in that the runner (A) supinates rather than pronates at heel contact (B) pronates during the propulsive phase of ga...

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  • October 5, 2024
  • 42
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

Subjects

  • apmle part 2 exam questions and answers
  • the four elements of the tort of medical malpracti
  • venous stasis ulcers of the lower extremities usua
  • a stratum granulosum is found in which of the foll

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APMLE Part 2 Exam || Questions &
Solutions (100% Accurate)




CONCEPTIAL RESEARCH


, APMLE Part 2 Exam || Questions &
Solutions (100% Accurate)
The running gait cycle differs from the walking gait cycle in that the runner
(A) supinates rather than pronates at heel contact
(B) pronates during the propulsive phase of gait
(C) does not have a double support phase of gait
(D) does not have a float phase of gait - ANSWER - C
Stance phase is shortened as running speed increases,
which decreases the time in stance and results in the
elimination of the brief time when both feet are in
stance at the same time.

If a skin incision is made directly over a tendon, there is an increased risk of

(A) adhesion
(B) infection
(C) synovitis
(D) skin slough - ANSWER - A
Fibrous scar tissue often causes adhesions between a
tendon and its sheath and the overlying skin.

A 10-year-old girl is brought to a hospital emergency department. She is seen by a
podiatric physician for treatment of a large abscess on the dorsum of the foot, where
she was bitten by an insect 3 days ago. Physical examination reveals a temperature
of 103°F with a grade IV/VI holosystolic murmur radiating all over the chest wall. In
this situation, it would be most appropriate for the podiatric physician to do which of
the following?

(A) Request a cardiac consultation and take no further action until the consultation
(B) Order an echocardiogram and take no further action until the results are
reviewed
(C) Take prophylactic measures for endocarditis and proceed with surgery
(D) Admit the patient to the hospital, begin intravenous antibiotics, and wait for a stat.
cardiac consultation before taking further action - ANSWER - D
Although the intensity of the murmur does not
indicate the severity of a valve defect, a patient
with cardiac murmur should be medically cleared by
an M.D. or D.O. prior to undergoing any invasive
treatment such as surgical intervention. In this case,
there is the potential for incision and drainage.

Podiatric services that are eligible for payment under Medicare are determined by
which of the following?
(A) The state insurance commission
(B) The state podiatric medical association
(C) The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
(D) The American Podiatric Medical Association - ANSWER - C

,The Centers for Medicare & Medicaid Services
(CMS) is the government agency responsible for
determining the fees and services that are eligible for
payment for Medicare and Medicaid recipients.
Federal law to provide that direction defines this
agency.

Which of the following is true with respect to magnetic resonance imaging of the
Achilles tendon?
(A) The normal diameter generally does not exceed 5 mm.
(B) Close to the calcaneal insertion, the anterior aspect is convex in the axial view.
(C) The signal intensity is normally isointense with muscle on a T2-weighted image.
(D) A high intratendinous signal intensity on a heavily water-weighted image is
suggestive of an acute rupture or injury. - ANSWER - D
On MRI, a rupture or an injury appears as an area of
increased signal in the tendon.

Secondary radiographic findings of a subtalar joint coalition include all of the
following EXCEPT
(A) talar beaking
(B) loss of sinus tarsi
(C) increased calcaneal inclination angle
(D) blunting of the lateral process of the talus - ANSWER - C
Subtalar joint coalition is most often associated with
pes planus and peroneal spasm, with available motion
seen usually in the pronatory direction. All of these
findings are associated with a decreased calcaneal
inclination angle.

In a 75-year-old patient with bowel incontinence and an infected heel decubitus
ulcer, which of the following is the most likely pathogen?
(A) Escherichia coli
(B) Bacteroides fragilis
(C) Neisseria gonorrhoeae
(D) Pseudomonas aeruginosa - ANSWER - A
Escherichia coli is transmitted from fecal material
and isolated from stool cultures. In a patient with
bowel incontinence, the ulcer is most likely infected
from the patient's fecal material.

The four elements of the tort of medical malpractice are
(A) duty, breach, causation, abandonment
(B) duty, breach, causation, damages
(C) duty, consent, causation, damages
(D) duty, standard, relationship, damages - ANSWER - B
A tort is an act of wrongdoing, which is civil in
nature rather than criminal. It is a wrong independent
of contract or criminality. Health care providers have
a duty to do what is right and reasonable. The
elements of the tort of malpractice address situations

, in which there is a breach of duty that causes or
results in harm.

A wet-to-dry dressing for an infected wound is used primarily to

(A) cover the wound in order to prevent further contamination
(B) apply antibacterial solutions to the wound
(C) mechanically debride the wound
(D) keep the wound moist - ANSWER - C
When a wet-to-dry dressing is removed, superficial
necrotic tissue is also removed from the wound.

In an anteroposterior radiographic view, a talonavicular articulation of less than 70
percent is a sign of
(A) pronation
(B) supination
(C) metatarsus adductus
(D) skew foot - ANSWER - A
The talus adducts and plantarflexes in closed chain
pronation, and actually decreases the amount of
articulation of the talus and navicular.

A 12-year-old patient presents with arch pain. Gait evaluation reveals hyperpronation
throughout the stance phase of gait. Resting calcaneal stance position is 2 degrees
valgus. Radiographic evaluation reveals an anterior break in the cyma line and an
increased Kite's angle. This patient most likely has
(A) a flexible flatfoot
(B) a clubfoot deformity
(C) a cavovarus foot
(D) an equinovarus foot - ANSWER - A
The clinical and radiographic features described in
this question are associated with an excessively
pronated foot, such as flexible flatfoot.

The primary goal of implant surgery of the first metatarsophalangeal joint is to
(A) eliminate joint pain
(B) improve joint motion
(C) increase the stability of the first ray
(D) preserve the plantar intrinsic musculature - ANSWER - A
The implant functions as a spacer between the
proximal phalanx and the first metatarsal after
the painful joint has been resected.

Venous stasis ulcers of the lower extremities usually respond best to which of the
following types of treatment?

(A) Oral antibiotics
(B) Topical antibiotics
(C) Arterial revascularization
(D) Compressive contact dressings - ANSWER - D

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