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WGU D320 MANAGING CLOUD SECURITY OA AND PA EXAM 2024 ACTUAL EXAM WITH 300 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /ALREADY GRADED A+ $17.99   Add to cart

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WGU D320 MANAGING CLOUD SECURITY OA AND PA EXAM 2024 ACTUAL EXAM WITH 300 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /ALREADY GRADED A+

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WGU D320 MANAGING CLOUD SECURITY OA AND PA EXAM 2024 ACTUAL EXAM WITH 300 QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS (100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /ALREADY GRADED A+

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  • October 5, 2024
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  • WGU D320 MANAGING CLOUD SECURITY OA AND PA
  • WGU D320 MANAGING CLOUD SECURITY OA AND PA
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WGU D320 MANAGING CLOUD SECURITY OA AND
PA EXAM 2024 ACTUAL EXAM WITH 300
QUESTIONS WITH DETAILED VERIFIED ANSWERS
(100% CORRECT ANSWERS) /ALREADY GRADED A+


Sarbanes-Oxley (SOX) Act - ANSWERincrease transparency into publicly traded
corporations' financial activities

Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act (GLBA) - ANSWERallow banks to merge and own insurance
companies

Clarifying Lawful Overseas Use of Data (CLOUD) Act - ANSWERAllows US law
enforcement and courts to compel American companies to disclose data stored in
foreign data centers

FERPA - ANSWERprevent academic institutions from sharing student data other than
parents or student

Master service agreement (MSA) - ANSWERprovide an umbrella contract for the work
that a vendor does with an organization over an extended period of time

Service level agreement (SLA) - ANSWERwritten contracts that specify the conditions
of service that will be provided by the vendor and the remedies available to the
customer if the vendor fails to meet the SLA

Business partnership agreement (BPA) - ANSWERexist when two organizations agree
to do business with each other in a partnerhsip

memorandum of understanding (MOU) - ANSWERa letter written to document aspects
of the relationship to avoid future misunderstandings

OWASP Top Ten - ANSWERa standard awareness document for developers and web
application security, it represents a broad consensus about the most critical security
risks to web applications.

OWASP 1: Access Control - ANSWERenforces policy such that users cannot act
outside of their intended permissions

OWASP 2: Cryptographic Failures - ANSWERfocus is on failures related to
cryptography (or lack thereof), Which often lead to exposure of sensitive data.

,OWASP 3: Injection - ANSWERan attacker's attempt to send data to an application in a
way that will change the meaning of commands being sent to an interpreter

OWASP 4: Insecure Design - ANSWERfocuses on risks related to design and
architectural flaws, with a call for more use of threat modeling, secure design patterns,
and reference architectures

OWASP 5: Security Misconfiguration - ANSWERoccurs when system or application
configuration settings are missing or are erroneously implemented, allowing
unauthorized access

OWASP 6: Vulnerable and Outdated Components - ANSWERthird-party libraries or
frameworks used in web applications that have known vulnerabilities or are no longer
supported by their developers

OWASP 7: Identification and Authentication Failures - ANSWERThe failure of a system
to identify and/or authenticate leaves the application susceptible to attacks and leaves
user accounts/data at risk

OWASP 8: Software and Data Integrity Failures - ANSWERrelate to code and
infrastructure that does not protect against integrity violations; occur when an attacker
can modify or delete data in an unauthorized manner

OWASP 9: Security Logging and Monitoring Failures - ANSWERthis category is to help
detect, escalate, and respond to active breaches, without logging and monitoring,
breaches cannot be detected

OWASP 10: Server Side Request Forgery (SSRF) - ANSWERoccur whenever a web
application is fetching a remote resource without validating the user-supplied URL,
allows an attacker to coerce the application to send a crafted request to an unexpected
destination, even when protected by a firewall, VPN, or another type of network access
control list (ACL).

data lifecycle - ANSWERCreate, Store, Use, Share, Archive, Destroy

SOC 1 Report - ANSWERstrictly for auditing the financial reporting instruments of a
corporation

SOC 2 Report - ANSWERIntended to report audits of any controls on an organization's
security, availability, processing integrity, confidentiality, and privacy

SOC 3 Report - ANSWERDesigned to be shared with the public, does not contain any
actual data about the security controls of the audit target.

, SOC 2 Type 1 Report - ANSWERReviews the design of controls, not how they are
implemented or maintained

SOC 2 Type 2 Report - ANSWERUsed for getting a true assessment of an
organization's security posture

IaaS risks - ANSWER1. Personnel threats (insiders)
2. External threats (malware, hacking, DDoS, MITM)
3. Lack of specific skillsets

PaaS risks - ANSWER1. Interoperability issues
2. Persistent backdoors, DevOps
3. Virtualization
4. Resource sharing

SaaS risks - ANSWER1. Proprietary formats
2. Virtualization
3. Web app security

regulators - ANSWERinvolved in cloud service arrangements

critiques - ANSWERfalls under the exceptions category for "fair-use" copyrighted
material

Cloud-Secure Software Deployment Lifecycle (SDLC) - ANSWERDefining, Designing,
Development, Testing, Secure Operations, Disposal

Defining - ANSWERFocused on identifying the business requirements of the
application, such as accounting, database, or customer relationship management

Designing - ANSWERBegin to develop user stories (what the user will want to
accomplish, what the interface will look like and whether it will require the use or
development of any APIs)

Development - ANSWERwhere the code is written

Testing - ANSWERActivities such as initial penetration testing and vulnerability
scanning against the application is performed. Will use both dynamic and static testing
or DSAT (Dynamic Application Security Testing) or SAST (Static Application Security
Testing).

Secure Operations - ANSWERAfter testing, the application is deemed secure

Disposal - ANSWEROnce it's reached the end of life or has been replaced with a newer
or different application.

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