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NURS 6521N Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+ $14.49   Add to cart

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NURS 6521N Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+

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NURS 6521N Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam Questions and Complete Solutions Graded A+

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  • October 7, 2024
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NURS 6521N
Advanced
Pharmacology
Midterm Exam
David Mungai [Date] [Course title]

,NURS 6521N Advanced Pharmacology Midterm Exam



Question 1

SGLT2 inhibitors may have a role in treating which of the following conditions?

 A. Thyroid disorders
 B. Pulmonary hypertension
 C. Renal failure
 D. Hepatic dysfunction
 E. Cardiac arrhythmias

Correct Answer: C. Renal failure



Question 2

Which of the following phases is most concerned with drug absorption and metabolism?

 A. Distribution phase
 B. Pharmacokinetic phase
 C. Storage phase
 D. Pharmaceutical phase
 E. Pharmacodynamic phase

Correct Answer: B. Pharmacokinetic phase



Question 3

Why is pyridostigmine useful in the symptomatic treatment of myasthenia gravis?

 A. Pyridostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, increasing acetylcholine availability.
 B. Pyridostigmine increases the degradation of acetylcholine at the neuromuscular
junction.

 C. Pyridostigmine acts as an immunosuppressant, reducing antibody production against
acetylcholine receptors.
 D. Pyridostigmine blocks calcium channels in the presynaptic neuron.
 E. Pyridostigmine directly stimulates acetylcholine receptors on the muscle cell surface.

,Correct Answer: A. Pyridostigmine inhibits acetylcholinesterase, increasing acetylcholine
availability.



Question 4

What is the first-pass effect?

 A. Release of a drug's active ingredient from its formulation
 B. Drug metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic circulation
 C. Immediate drug effect upon first administration
 D. Initial drug distribution and plasma protein binding
 E. Complete drug elimination after first use

Correct Answer: B. Drug metabolism in the liver before reaching systemic circulation



Question 5

Intravenous heparin would be best used in which of the following situations?

 A. In a patient with stable angina
 B. In a patient with a recent epidural hemorrhage
 C. In a patient with carotid artery stenosis
 D. In a patient with atrial fibrillation
 E. In a patient with myocardial infarction which was treated by coronary angioplasty

Correct Answer: E. In a patient with myocardial infarction which was treated by coronary
angioplasty



Question 6

What are the two major classes of medications used to manage angina pectoris?

 A. Vasoconstrictors and cardiac depressants
 B. Vasodilators and cardiac stimulants
 C. Inotropes and vasoconstrictors
 D. Vasodilators and cardiac depressants
 E. Vasoconstrictors and cardiac stimulants

Correct Answer: D. Vasodilators and cardiac depressants

, Question 7

What most accurately describes the mechanism of action of tiagabine on gamma-aminobutyric
acid (GABA)?

 A. GABA-B receptor antagonist
 B. GABA-B receptor agonist
 C. Inhibition of GAT-1
 D. GABA-A receptor antagonist
 E. GABA-A receptor agonist

Correct Answer: C. Inhibition of GAT-1



Question 8

Which medication is a muscarinic agent that prevents bronchoconstriction caused by vagal
discharge and is often used in both children and adults?

 A. Ipratropium (Atrovent)
 B. Salmeterol (Serevent)
 C. Formoterol (Foradil)
 D. Albuterol (Ventolin)
 E. Theophylline (Theo-24)

Correct Answer: A. Ipratropium (Atrovent)



Question 9

Why is pyridostigmine taken multiple times a day for the management of myasthenia gravis?

 A. It is rapidly degraded.
 B. Patients rapidly develop tolerance to its effects.
 C. It requires a high concentration in order to be effective.
 D. It interacts with other medications, reducing its effectiveness over time.
 E. It has a slow onset of action.

Correct Answer: A. It is rapidly degraded.

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