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LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE ACTUAL EXAM Latest Update Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 350 Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor $30.49   Add to cart

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LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE ACTUAL EXAM Latest Update Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 350 Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor

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LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE ACTUAL EXAM Latest Update Actual Exam from Credible Sources with 350 Questions and Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor

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  • October 7, 2024
  • 101
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE
  • LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE
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LPN-ADN HESI ENTRANCE ACTUAL EXAM
Latest Update 2024-2025 Actual Exam from
Credible Sources with 350 Questions and
Verified Correct Answers Golden Ticket to
Guaranteed A+ Verified by Professor

1. A client with cancer who has been taking opioid analgesics for two years now
requires increased doses to obtain pain relief. The client expresses fear about
becoming addicted to these drugs. What information should the practical nurse (PN)
provide?
A. Opioid use with cancer does not cause addiction.
B. Addiction is easily reversed if it occurs during pain management.
C. Prescribed opiates for cancer pain relief improve qualify of life.
D. Opioid dosages can be tapered if a client fears addiction. - CORRECT ANSWER: C.
Prescribed opiates for cancer pain relief improve qualify of life
The goal of pain management for clients with cancer using opiates is to minimize pain
and maintain quality of life


2. A client's indwelling urinary catheter is removed at 9:30 AM. The practical nurse (PN)
assesses the client every two hours for the desire to void. Which documented
assessment requires further intervention by the PN?
A. 1:30 pm: unable to void.
B. 5:30 pm: unable to void.
C. 3:30 pm: unable to void.
D. 11:30 am: unable to void. - CORRECT ANSWER: B. A client is due to void within 8
hours of catheter removal, so at 5:30 PM. Longer than 8 hours after removal, catheter
reinsertion may be necessary. If the bladder is not distended, further action may not be
needed


3. Which position is best for the practical nurse to place the client in during
administration of a rectal suppository for constipation?

,A. Prone with pillows under the client's abdomen.
B. Supine with the client on a bed pan.
C. Left Sims' position with upper leg flexed.
D. Right-side lying knee-chest position. - CORRECT ANSWER: C. Left side-lying Sims'
position lessens the likelihood that the suppository or feces will be expelled, exposes
the anus for visualization during insertion, and helps the client to relax the external anal
sphincter


31. 34.ID: 311121201
Which food should the practical nurse (PN) recommend for a client to increase the
dietary intake of potassium?
A. Corn.
B. Baked potato.
C. Popcorn.
D. Grape juice. - CORRECT ANSWER: B. A baked potato, including its skin, contains
the highest amount of potassium. (A, C, and D) are low in potassium.


4. The practical nurse (PN) is adding tap water to several medications for administration
via feeding tube. Which preparation should the PN administer without delay?
A. Reconstituted powder.
B. Timed release capsule.
C. Cherry flavored elixir.
D. Flavorless suspension. - CORRECT ANSWER: B. Although the gelatin capsule can
be opened to administer the spansule's granules, the PN should not crush or allow the
timed-released granules to dissolve before administering this preparation via feeding
tube since the timed-release function can be compromised.


A client is prescribed a medication that is labeled as a sustained released (SR). What
action should the practical nurse (PN) implement when administering this drug form?
A. Instruct the client to chew the medication.
B. Do not crush or dissolve the tablet or capsule contents.
C. Obtain a different drug form for administration.

,D. Delay giving the medication until the stomach is empty. - CORRECT ANSWER: B.
Sustained-release tablets or capsules are drug forms that are coated and delay
dissolution over a period of time and should not be crushed or dissolved for
administration


A client is receiving a continuous tube feeding. While checking the gastric residual
volume, the practical nurse (PN) aspirates 150 ml of gastric contents. What action
should the PN take?
A. Rinse the feeding tube after throwing the aspirated gastric contents away and restart
the feeding.
B. Replace half of the aspirated gastric contents and slow the rate of the feeding.
C. Throw the aspirated gastric contents away and stop the continuous feeding.
D. Return all the aspirated contents to the stomach followed with water and consult the
agency policy. - CORRECT ANSWER: D. The residual volume should be replaced in
order to prevent loss of electrolytes, and the agency policy should be followed to
determine the routine actions regarding the volume of the next feeding, the rate of the
feeding, or the duration to withhold the continuous feeding. Throwing the aspirate away
or only replacing a portion places the client at risk for electrolyte imbalance


A client is receiving a daily prescription for furosemide (Lasix) 40 mg PO, but is unable
to swallow. The practical nurse (PN) should consult with the healthcare provider about
which component of the prescription?
A. Time of the dose.
B. The prescribed dosage.
C. The route of administration.
D. Available generic drug. - CORRECT ANSWER: C. The healthcare provider should be
consulted to determine if another route of administration is indicated for the client who is
unable to swallow oral tablets. The drug's time (A), dose (B), and generic name (D) do
not need clarification of the prescription


A client is receiving a Mantoux test for tuberculosis screening. Which angle should the
practical nurse (PN) insert the needle for injection?
A. 15 degrees.
B. 30 degrees.

, C. 45 degrees.
D. 90 degrees. - CORRECT ANSWER: A. The Mantoux test is an intradermal (ID)
injection, so the angle of needle insertion is 5 to 15 degrees, which deposits the antigen
into the dermis. Depending upon the client's amount of adipose tissue, (B, C, and D)
may place the medication into subcutaneous or intramuscular tissues, which does not
provide the best results for ID testing.


A client receiving supplemental oxygen needs to be suctioned to remove excess
secretions from the airway. Which intervention should the practical nurse implement to
maximize the client's oxygenation?
A. Encourage deep breathing prior to suctioning.
B. Increase the oxygen flow rate during suctioning attempts.
C. Provide oxygen during rest periods between suctioning.
D. Limit suctioning attempts to five second intervals. - CORRECT ANSWER: C. When a
client is unable to effectively clear respiratory tract secretions with coughing, suctioning
with oxygen during rest periods of 10 to 15 seconds between suction attempts should
be provided to ensure maximal oxygenation.


A client reports feeling dizzy and lightheaded when moving from a supine position to a
sitting position. What is the practical nurse's priority intervention?
A. Determine the pulse pressure.
B. Measure pulse oximetry.
C. Assess peripheral pulse points.
D. Obtain orthostatic blood pressures. - CORRECT ANSWER: D. Dizziness and
lightheadedness when moving from a supine to a sitting or standing position are
symptoms of postural hypotension. Orthostatic blood pressure measurements
(decrease of greater than 20 mm Hg systolic, decrease of greater than 10 mm Hg
diastolic, and a 10% to 20% increase in heart rate) are used to determine the presence
of postural hypotension.


A client who has a pressure-relieving mattress overlay is mobilized to a chair and
imprints of the client's buttocks, heels, and scapula are evident on the mattress overlay.
What action should the practical nurse implement?
A. Turn the mattress overlay to the opposite side.

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