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NR511 Week 7 Questions and Answers 100% Solved
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Exam of 7 pages for the course NR511 at NR511 (NR511 Week 7)
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NR511 Week 7A patient's chief complaint is heaviness in the scrotum. The nurse practitioner notes
swelling of the testes, along with warm scrotal skin. Which of the following diagnoses is
most probable?
Cryptorchidism
Orchitis
Testicular torsion
epididymitis - answer Orchitis
John asks for a prescription for sildenafil (Viagra). He says that the only medication he
takes is isosorbide mononitrate (Monoket) oral tablets and that he has diabetes that he
controls with diet alone. What should the nurse practitioner tell him?
"Let's try a sample and see how you do."
"Viagra is contraindicated with isosorbide mononitrate; let's discuss other options."
"Because of your history of diabetes, we can't use it."
"I'd better refer you to a urologist." - answer"Viagra is contraindicated with isosorbide
mononitrate; let's discuss other options."
Regular testicular self-exams have not been studied enough to show if they lower the
risk of dying from testicular cancer. This is why the American Cancer Society and other
agencies do not have a recommendation about regular testicular self-exams for all men.
Still, some practitioners do recommend that all men examine their testicles monthly after
reaching puberty. If you are teaching a patient how to do a testicular self-examination,
which of the following do you tell him?
"Examine your testicles when you are cold because this makes them more sensitive."
"Make sure your hands are dry to create friction."
"If you feel firmness above and behind the testicle, make an appointment."
"Make an appointment if you note any hard lumps directly on the testicle, regardless of
whether they are tender." - answer"Make an appointment if you note any hard lumps
directly on the testicle, regardless of whether they are tender."
Max, age 70, is obese. He is complaining of a bulge in his groin that has been there for
months. He states that it is not painful, but it is annoying. The practitioner notes that the
origin of the swelling is above the inguinal ligament and directly behind and through the
external ring. This finding is most indicative of a(n):
Indirect inguinal hernia.
Direct inguinal hernia.
Femoral hernia.
, Strangulated hernia. - answerDirect inguinal hernia
Reiter syndrome is a complication of:
Bacterial vaginosis.
Syphilis.
Chlamydia.
Gonorrhea. - answerChlamydia
Josh and Martha have 5 children and do not want any more. Josh said he heard about a
no-scalpel vasectomy (NSV) and asks the nurse practitioner how it works. What would
be the best response?
"For the vasectomy to be permanent, you must have the vas deferens excised."
"It's safer for Martha to be sterilized."
"A loop of vas deferens is delivered through the scrotal skin and occluded."
"The testes are twisted, which occludes the vas deferens." - answer"A loop of vas
deferens is delivered through the scrotal skin and occluded."
Roger, a healthy 68-year-old man, comes in to see you with a complaint of sudden
episodes of an urgent need to void. He has had several episodes of moderate amounts
of unintentional urine loss during these times. Other than these episodes, he is voiding
in amounts "normal" for him, with no leakage when he coughs or sneezes. The
practitioner's initial diagnosis is which type of incontinence?
Stress incontinence.
Urge incontinence.
Overflow incontinence.
Mixed incontinence. - answerUrge incontinence
Tommy, age 15, comes to the clinic in acute distress with "belly pain." When obtaining
his history, the nurse practitioner (NP) finds that he fell off his bike this morning and has
vomited. Upon closer examination, the NP determines the belly pain to be left-sided
groin pain or pain in his left testicle. He is afebrile and reports no dysuria. Which of the
following diagnoses is most likely?
Testicular torsion.
Epididymitis.
Hydrocele.
Varicocele. - answerTesticular torsion
You are referring a 73-year-old client for management of his prostate cancer with
hormonal therapy. It is understood that goserelin acetate (Zoladex) acts as a method of
androgen ablation by:
Blocking the release of follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and luteinizing hormone (LH).
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