NSG6020 Week 7 quiz Exam/20
Questions and Answers A+ Graded
A 24-year-old travel agent comes to your clinic, complaining of pain and
swelling in her vulvar area. She states that 2 days earlier she could feel a
small tender spot on the left side of her vagina but now it is larger and
extremely tender. Her last period was 1 year ago and she is sexually active.
She uses the Depo-Provera shot for contraception. She denies any nausea,
vomiting, constipation, diarrhea, pain with urination, or fever. Her past
medical history is
significant for ankle surgery. Her mother is healthy and her father has type 2
diabetes. On examination she appears her stated age and is standing up.
She states she cannot sit down without excruciating pain. Her blood
pressure, temperature, and pulse are unremarkable. On visualization of her
perineum, a large, red, tense swelling is seen to the left of her introitus.
Palpation of the mass causes a great deal of pain. What disorder of the vulva
is most likely - -Bartholin's gland infection
-A 48-year-old high school librarian comes to your clinic, complaining of 1
week of heavy discharge causing severe itching. She is not presently
sexually active and has had no burning
with urination. The symptoms started several days after her last period. She
just finished a course of antibiotics for a sinus infection. Her past medical
history consists of type 2 diabetes and high
blood pressure. She is widowed and has three children. She denies tobacco,
alcohol, or drug use. Her mother has high blood pressure and her father died
of diabetes complications. On examination you see a healthy-appearing
woman. Her blood pressure is 130/80 and her pulse is 70. Her head, eyes,
ears, nose, throat, cardiac, lung, and abdominal examinations are
unremarkable. Palpation of the inguinal lymph nodes is unremarkable. On
visualization of the vulva, a thick, white, curdy discharge is seen at the
introitus. On speculum examination ther - -Candida vaginitis
-Which of the following represents metrorrhagia? - -bleeding between
periods
-A 42-year-old realtor comes to your clinic, complaining of "growths" in her
vulvar area. She is currently undergoing a divorce and is convinced she has a
sexually transmitted disease. She denies any vaginal discharge or pain with
urination. She has had no fever, malaise, or night sweats. Her past medical
history consists of depression and hypothyroidism. She has had two
spontaneous vaginal deliveries and one cesarean section. She has had no
other surgeries. She denies smoking or drug use. She has two to three drinks
weekly. Her mother also has hypothyroidism and her father has high blood
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