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NR602 FINAL EXAM|| ACTUAL TEST BANK ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS!!!
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NR602 FINAL EXAM|| ACTUAL TEST BANK ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+|| LATEST AND COMPLETE UPDATE WITH VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS!!!

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  • October 16, 2024
  • 102
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers

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  • nr602 final
  • nr602 final exam actual test bank all questions
  • nr602 final exam actual test bank

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  • NR602

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NR602 FINAL EXAM|| ACTUAL TEST BANK
ALL QUESTIONS AND 100% CORRECT
ANSWERS ALREADY GRADED A+|| LATEST
AND COMPLETE UPDATE 2024-2025 WITH
VERIFIED SOLUTIONS|| ASSURED PASS!!!
Which one best describes lesions associated with condyloma acuminatum?


a. Verrucifor
b. Plaque-like
c. Vesicular
d. Bullous - ANSWER: a


39yo female has completed course of amox for strep throat. LMP was 2wks ago,
says it was normal. On exam, there's erythema of extern. genitalia w/small amount
of white discharge. Micro wet prep reveals few clue cells, but many budding
hyphae. No WBCs. Which one would be the most appropriate treatment?


a. Metronidazole 500mg BID x7 days
b. OTC hydrocortisone 1% cream TID
c. Fluconazole tabs 150mg x1 dose
d. Erythromycin 500mg TID x10 days - ANSWER: c


Woman c/o vaginal itching, white discharge. She is in good health except for recent
abx for strep throat. Pelvic reveals tender vulvovaginal area w/edema and
nonmalodorous white patches. Which is the most likely cause?

,2|Page




a. Bacterial vaginosis
b. Trichomonas
c. Lactobacillus overgrowth
d. Candidiasis - ANSWER: d


18yo female c/o secondary amenorrhea. On exam, there is normal secondary sex
characteristics and normal genitalia. Pregnancy is ruled out. What would
necessitate further eval?


a. Elevated blood cholesterol levels
b. Androgen deficiency
c. Galactorrhea
d. Hirsutism - ANSWER: c


24yo female is dx'd w/primary dysmenorrhea. Which med would be used as first-
line to help control symptoms?


a. Antianxiety meds
b. Progesterone-only contraception
c. Oral steroids
d. NSAIDs - ANSWER: d


Primary amenorrhea is best described as:


a. Cessation of menstruation x6mo

,3|Page


b. Failure of menstruation to occur by 17ho
c. Failure of menstruation to occur by 13yo
d. Cessation of menstruation x6mo after menarche - ANSWER: c


25yo female c/o vaginal irritation and discharge. On exam, cervix is easily friable
and erythematous. No adnexal tenderness. Wet prep reveals mobile protozoa on NS
slide. This most likely represents:


a. Trichomonas
b. Mucopurulent cervicitis
c. Bacterial vaginosis
d. Gonorrhea - ANSWER: a


16yo female has h/o secondary amenorrhea. Menarche at 10yo, regular cycles
x2yrs, has not menstruated x4yrs. What is most frequent etiology of this problem?


a. Eating disorder
b. Pregnancy
c. Anovulatory cycles
d. Stress - ANSWER: a


Woman is experiencing vaginal discharge. Wet mount with KOH would be used to
confirm:


a. Herpes simplex
b. Gonorrhea
c. Candidiasis

, 4|Page


d. Chlamydia - ANSWER: c


Treatment options for condyloma acuminatum include:


a. Imiquimod (Aldera)
b. Azithromycin
c. Acyclovir
d. Metronidazole - ANSWER: a


25yo postmenopausal female c/o pain in upper outer quadrant of L breast x1mo.
Best course of action would be:


a. Reassure pt that pain is often not presenting symptom of breast cancer.
b. Teach pt breast self-exam.
c. Order labs as most likely this is secondary to hormonal fluctuation
d. Perform breast exam and order mammo - ANSWER: d


PID typically presents with all of the following except:


a. Dysuria
b. Leukopenia
c. Cervical motion tenderness
d. Abd pain - ANSWER: b


Which of the following are of a reproductive and pelvic origin?

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