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NUR 213 Exam With 350+ Questions & Correct Answers
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NUR 213 Exam With 350+ Questions & Correct Answers / NUR 213 Exam With 350+ Questions & Correct Answers
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NUR 213 Exam With 350+ Questions & Correct AnswersA client has an AV fistula in the right upper arm for hemodialysis treatments.
When planning care for this client, which measure should the nurse implement to
promote client safety?
A) Take blood pressures only on the right side to ensure accuracy
B) Use the fistula for all venipunctures and IV infusions
C) Ensure that small clamps are attached to the fistula dressing at all times
D) Assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and a thrill every 4 hours -
ANSWER-D) Assess the fistula for the presence of a bruit and a thrill every 4
hours
A client is scheduled for hydrotherapy for a burn dressing change. Which action
should the nurse take to ensure that the procedure is most tolerable for the client?
A) Ensure the client has a robe and slippers
B) Administer an analgesic 20 mins before therapy
C) Send dressing supplies with the client to hydrotherapy
D) Administer an IV antibiotic 30 mins prior to therapy - ANSWER-B) Administer
an analgesic 20 mins before therapy
A client with Myasthenia Gravis is admitted to the hospital, and the nursing history
reveals that the client is taking pyridostigmine. When assessing the client for the
side effects of this medication, the nurse should ask the client about the presence of
which occurance?
,A) Mouth ulcers
B) Muscle cramps
C) Feelings of depression
D) Unexplained weight gain - ANSWER-B) Muscle Cramps
Rationale: Pyridostigmine is an anticholinesterase inhibitor used to treat
myasthenia gravis. Muscle cramps and small muscle contractions are common side
effects and occur as a result of overstimulation of neuromuscular receptors.
The nurse notes an isolated premature ventricular contraction (PVC) on the cardiac
monitor. Which action should the nurse take?
A) Prepare for defibrillation
B) Continue to monitor the rhythm
C) Notify the HCP
D) Prepare to administer lidocaine hydrochloride - ANSWER-B) Continue to
monitor the rhythm
Rationale: As an isolated occurance, a PVC is not life threatening. The nurse
should continue to monitor the patients rhythm. Frequent PVCs, however, maybe
precursors of a more life-threatening rhythm such as vtach or vfib.
A client was admitted to the hospital 24 hours ago after sustaining blunt force
trauma to the chest. Which earliest clinical manifestations of acute respiratory
distress syndrome (ARDS) should the nurse monitor for?
A) Cyanosis and pallor
,B) Diffuse crackles and rhonchi on chest auscultation
C) Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
D) Haziness or "white out" appearance of lungs on chest X-ray - ANSWER-C)
Increase in respiratory rate from 18 to 30 breaths per minute
Rationale: ARDS usually develops within 24-48 hrs after an initiating event, such
as chest trauma. In most cases tachypnea and dyspnea are the earliest clinical
manifestations as the body compensates for mild hypoxemia through
hyperventiliation. Cyanosis and pallor are usually late signs of severe hypoxemia.
In ARDS lung sounds are initially clear but progress to crackles and rhonchi as
pulmonary edema occurs. Xrays will shouw a "white out" appearance much later in
the progression of ARDS.
A client has developed atrial fibrillation and has a ventricular rate of 150 beats per
minute. The nurse should assess the client for which effects of this cardiac
occurrence?
A) flat neck veins
B) nausea and vomiting
C) hypotension and dizziness
D) hypertension and headache - ANSWER-C) hypotension and dizziness
The home care nurse is making a follow-up visit to a client after a renal transplant.
The nurse should assess the client for which manifestations of acute graft
rejection?
A) hypotension, graft tenderness, and anemia
B) hypertension, oliguria, thirst, and hypothermia
C) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise
, D) fever, vomiting, hypotension, and copious amounts of dilute urine output -
ANSWER-C) fever, hypertension, graft tenderness, and malaise
A client with a burn injury recieves a prescription for a regular diet. Which is the
best meal for the nurse to provide to the client to promote wound healing?
A) peanut butter & jelly sandwich, apple, tea
B) chicken breast, broccoli, strawberries, milk
C) veal chop, boiled potatoes, jell-o, orange juice
D) pasta with tomato sauce, garlic bread, ginger ale - ANSWER-B) chicken breast,
broccoli, strawberries, milk
Rationale: the meal with the best potential to promote wound healing includes
nutrient-rich food choices including protein, such as chicken and milk, and vitamin
c, such as strawberries and broccoli. The remaining food options include one or
more items with low nutritional value, especially the jell-o, tea, jelly, and ginger
ale.
An adult client arrives in the emergency department with burns to both entire legs
and the perineal area. Using the rule of nines, the nurse could determine that
approximately what percentage of the clients body surface area has been burned? -
ANSWER-37%
Rationale: Each leg is 18% and the perineum is 1% (18+18+1 = 37)
A client who is unresponsive and pulseless and has a possible neck injury is
brought into the emergency department after a motor vehicle crash. What should
the nurse do to open the clients airway?
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