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GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR REAL EXAM LATEST VERSION 120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS//ALREADY GRADED A+ Which of the following is correct about ventricular tachycardia? $20.49   Add to cart

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GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR REAL EXAM LATEST VERSION 120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS//ALREADY GRADED A+ Which of the following is correct about ventricular tachycardia?

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GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR REAL EXAM LATEST VERSION 120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS//ALREADY GRADED A+ Which of the following is correct about ventricular tachycardia? GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR REAL EXAM LATEST VERSION 120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS//ALREADY GRADED A+ Which of the foll...

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  • October 17, 2024
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  • 2024/2025
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  • GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR
  • GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR
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GNRS 555-CARDIOVASCULAR REAL EXAM 2024-2025 LATEST
VERSION 120 QUESTIONS AND CORRECT ANSWERS//ALREADY
GRADED A+
Which of the following is correct about ventricular tachycardia?

a. It always comes with no pulse.

b. It is a regular rhythm.

c. It has narrow QRS.

d. It is clinically significant. - CORRECT ANSWER-d. It is clinically significant.



Which of the following is not true about ventricular fibrillation?

a. It is always irregular.

b. It is always pulseless.

c. It is a lethal dysrhythmia.

d. Atropine is the drug of choice of ventricular fibrillation. - CORRECT ANSWER-d. Atropine is the drug of
choice of ventricular fibrillation.



During assessment of a 72-year-old with ankle swelling, the nurse notes jugular venous distention (JVD)
with the head of the patient's bed elevated 45 degrees. The nurse knows this finding indicates:

a. decreased fluid volume.

b. jugular vein atherosclerosis.

c. elevated right atrial pressure.

d. incompetent jugular vein valves. - CORRECT ANSWER-c. elevated right atrial pressure.

reason: The jugular veins empty into the superior vena cava and then into theright atrium, so JVD with
the patient sitting at a 45-degree anglereflects elevated right atrial pressure. JVD is an indicator
ofexcessive fluid volume (increased preload), not decreased fluid volume.JVD is not caused by
incompetent jugular vein valves or atherosclerosis.



The nurse is caring for a patient who is receiving IV furosemide (Lasix) and morphine for the treatment
of acute decompensated heart failure (ADHF) with severe orthopnea. When evaluating the patient
response to the medications, the best indicator that the treatment has been effective is:

a. weight loss of 2 pounds overnight.

,b. hourly urine output greater than 60 mL.

c. reduction in patient complaints of chest pain.

d. decreased dyspnea with the head of bed at 30 degrees. - CORRECT ANSWER-d. decreased dyspnea
with the head of bed at 30 degrees.



reason: Because the patient's major clinical manifestation of ADHF is orthopnea (caused by the presence
of fluid in the alveoli), the best indicator that the medications are effective is a decrease in dyspnea with
the head of the bed at 30 degrees. The other assessment data also may indicate that diuresis or
improvement in cardiac output has occurred but are not as specific to evaluating this patient's response.



Intravenous sodium nitroprusside (Nipride) is ordered for a patient with acute pulmonary edema. During
the first hours of administration, the nurse will need to adjust the nitroprusside rate if the patient
develops:

a. a dry, hacking cough.

b. any ventricular ectopy.

c. a systolic BP <90 mm Hg.

d. a heart rate <50 beats/minute. - CORRECT ANSWER-c. a systolic BP <90 mm Hg.

reason: Sodium nitroprusside is a potent vasodilator, and the major adverse effect is severe
hypotension. Coughing and bradycardia are not adverse effects of this medication. Nitroprusside does
not cause increased ventricular ectopy.



A patient who has chronic heart failure tells the nurse, "I felt fine when I went to bed, but I woke up in
the middle of the night feeling like I was suffocating!" The nurse will document this assessment
information as:

a. pulsus alternans.

b. two-pillow orthopnea.

c. acute bilateral pleural effusion.

d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea. - CORRECT ANSWER-d. paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea.

reason: Paroxysmal nocturnal dyspnea is caused by the reabsorption of fluid from dependent body areas
when the patient is sleeping and is characterized by waking up suddenly with the feeling of suffocation.
Pulsus alternans is the alternation of strong and weak peripheral pulses during palpation. Orthopnea
indicates that the patient is unable to lie flat because of dyspnea. Pleural effusions develop over a longer
time period.

, During a visit to a 72-year-old with chronic heart failure, the home care nurse finds that the patient has
ankle edema, a 2-kg weight gain, and complains of "feeling too tired to do anything." Based on these
data, the best nursing diagnosis for the patient is:

a. activity intolerance related to fatigue.

b. disturbed body image related to leg swelling.

c. impaired skin integrity related to peripheral edema.

d. impaired gas exchange related to chronic heart failure. - CORRECT ANSWER-a. activity intolerance
related to fatigue.



The nurse working in the heart failure clinic will know that teaching for a 74-year-old patient with newly
diagnosed heart failure has been effective when the patient:

a. uses an additional pillow to sleep when feeling short of breath at night.

b. tells the home care nurse that furosemide (Lasix) is taken daily at bedtime.

c. calls the clinic when the weight increases from 124 to 130 pounds in a week.

d. says that the nitroglycerin patch will be used for any chest pain that develops. - CORRECT ANSWER-c.
calls the clinic when the weight increases from 124 to 130 pounds in a week.

reason: Teaching for a patient with heart failure includes information about the need to weigh daily and
notify the health care provider about an increase of 3 pounds in 2 days or 5 pounds in a week.
Nitroglycerin patches are used primarily to reduce preload (not to prevent chest pain) in patients with
heart failure and should be used daily, not on an "as necessary" basis. Diuretics should be taken earlier
in the day to avoid nocturia and sleep disturbance. The patient should call the clinic if increased
orthopnea develops, rather than just compensating by elevating the head of the bed further.



When teaching the patient with heart failure about a 2000-mg sodium diet, the nurse explains that
foods to be restricted include:

a. canned and frozen fruits.

b. fresh or frozen vegetables.

c. milk, yogurt, and other milk products.

d. eggs and other high-cholesterol foods. - CORRECT ANSWER-c. milk, yogurt, and other milk products.

reason: Milk and yogurt naturally contain a significant amount of sodium, and intake of these should be
limited for patients on a diet that limits sodium to 2000 mg daily. Other milk products, such as processed
cheeses, have very high levels of sodium and are not appropriate for a 2000 mg sodium diet. The other
foods listed have minimal levels of sodium and can be eaten without restriction.

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