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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam 2024/2025 Questions With Completed & Verified Solutions.
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HESI Pharmacology Practice Exam 2024/2025 Questions With Completed & Verified Solutions.
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HESI Pharmacology Practice ExamAn antacid (Maalox) is prescribed for a client with peptic ulcer disease. The nurse knows that
the purpose of this medication is to
a. decrease production of gastric secretions.
b. produce an adherent barrier over the ulcer.
c. maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
d. decrease gastric motor activity. - ANS c. maintain a gastric pH of 3.5 or above.
The objective of antacids is to neutralize gastric acids and keep pH of 3.5 or above (C) which is
necessary for pepsinogen inactivity. (A) is the purpose of H2 receptor antagonists (cimetidine,
ranitidine). (B) is the purpose of sucralfate (Carafate). (D) is the purpose of anticholinergic drugs
which are often used in conjunction with antacids to allow the antacid to remain in the stomach
longer.
In evaluating the effects of lactulose (Cephulac), which outcome would indicate that the drug is
performing as intended?
a. An increase in urine output.
b. Two or three soft stools per day.
c. Watery, diarrhea stools.
d. Increased serum bilirubin. - ANS b. Two or three soft stools per day.
Lactulose is administered to reduce blood ammonia by excretion of ammonia through the stool.
Two to three stools a day indicate that lactulose is performing as intended (B). (A) would be
expected if the patient received a diuretic. (C) would indicate an overdose of lactulose and is not
expected. Lactulose does not affect (D).
The healthcare provider prescribes digitalis (Digoxin) for a client diagnosed with congestive
heart failure. Which intervention should the nurse implement prior to administering the digoxin?
a. Observe respiratory rate and depth.
b. Assess the serum potassium level.
c. Obtain the client's blood pressure.
d. Monitor the serum glucose level. - ANS b. Assess the serum potassium level.
Hypokalemia (decreased serum potassium) will precipitate digitalis toxicity in persons receiving
digoxin (B). (A and C) will not affect the administration of digoxin. (D) should be monitored if
he/she is a diabetic and is perhaps receiving insulin.
,Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal
attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been
achieved?
a. Client states chest pain is relieved.
b. Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.
c. Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.
d. Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - ANS a. Client states chest pain is relieved.
Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and reduces
chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as significant
as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in pain, or a
potentially serious side effect of the medication.
A client with congestive heart failure (CHF) is being discharged with a new prescription for the
angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitor captopril (Capoten). The nurse's discharge
instruction should include reporting which problem to the healthcare provider?
a. Weight loss.
b. Dizziness.
c. Muscle cramps.
d. Dry mucous membranes. - ANS b. Dizziness.
Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors are used in CHF to reduce afterload by
reversing vasoconstriction common in heart failure. This vasodilation can cause hypotension
and resultant dizziness (B). (A) is desired if fluid overload is present, and may occur as the
result of effective combination drug therapy such as diuretics with ACE inhibitors. (C) often
indicates hypokalemia in the client receiving diuretics. Excessive diuretic administration may
result in fluid volume deficit, manifested by symptoms such as (D).
A client is being treated for hyperthyroidism with propylthiouracil (PTU). The nurse knows that
the action of this drug is to
a. decrease the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
b. increase the amount of thyroid-stimulating hormone circulating in the blood.
c. increase the amount of T4 and decrease the amount of T3 produced by the thyroid.
d. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by the thyroid gland. - ANS d. inhibit synthesis of T3 and T4 by
the thyroid gland.
PTU is an adjunct therapy used to control hyperthyroidism by inhibiting production of thyroid
hormones (D). It is often prescribed in preparation for thyroidectomy or radioactive iodine
therapy. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is produced by the pituitary gland, and PTU does
not affect the pituitary (A and B). PTU inhibits the synthesis of all thyroid hormones--both T3 and
T4(C).
, A client with Parkinson's disease is taking carbidopa-levodopa (Sinemet). Which observation by
the nurse would indicate that the desired outcome of the medication is being achieved?
a. Decreased blood pressure.
b. Lessening of tremors.
c. Increased salivation.
d. Increased attention span. - ANS b. Lessening of tremors.
Sinemet increases the amount of levodopa to the CNS (dopamine to the brain). Increased
amounts of dopamine improve the symptoms of Parkinson's, such as involuntary movements,
resting tremors (B), shuffling gait, etc. (A) is a side effect of Sinemet. Decreased drooling would
be a desired effect, not (C). Sinemet does not affect (D).
Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a
prescription for warfarin (Coumadin). In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the
client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?
a. Perfusion scan.
b. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
c. Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).
d. Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - ANS b. Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).
When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin therapy is a
PT 1 to 2 times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion might be performed
to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the client receiving heparin
therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).
A postoperative client has been receiving a continuous IV infusion of meperidine (Demerol) 35
mg/hr for four days. The client has a PRN prescription for Demerol 100 mg PO q3h. The nurse
notes that the client has become increasingly restless, irritable and confused, stating that there
are bugs all over the walls. What action should the nurse take first?
a. Administer a PRN dose of the PO meperidine (Demerol).
b. Administer naloxone (Narcan) IV per PRN protocol.
c. Decrease the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol.
d. Notify the healthcare provider of the client's confusion and hallucinations. - ANS c. Decrease
the IV infusion rate of the meperidine (Demerol) per protocol.
The client is exhibiting symptoms of Demerol toxicity, which is consistent with the large dose of
Demerol received over four days. (C) is the most effective action to immediately decrease the
amount of serum Demerol. (A) will increase the toxic level of medication in the bloodstream.
Naloxone (B) is an opioid antagonist that is used during an opioid overdose, but it is not
beneficial during Demerol toxicity and can precipitate seizures. The healthcare provider should
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