Nursing Comprehensive Study Guide
Questions And Answers 100% Guaranteed
Success.
1 Which of the following approaches is best to take when the psychiatric technician
discovers that a postoperative surgery client who practices Judaism is eating only the
fruit and bread on his food tray? Since the nurse cannot change the dietary beliefs of
the client, the nurse can help adjust their diet within their belief structures. Kosher eating
demands the following: - correct answer. Separate dishes or pans are used to
prepare and to serve meat and dairy foods. Meats must be slaughtered by a ritual
method and only the front quarter of the animal may be eaten/ Meat and dairy may not
be eaten at the same meal. Food must be prepared ahead of time for the Sabbath
which is sundown Friday to sundown Saturday. Pork products, rabbit, shellfish, and
scavenger fish are also not allowed. (363)
Which diet is best for a client with a diagnosis of cardiovascular disease? - correct
answer. Low fat, low sodium, low calories (376-377) Think of some foods that would
be appropriate when answering the question on the exam.
3 What should be included when teaching about dietary restrictions for a client with
diagnosis of hypertension? - correct answer. Low sodium, should consume no more
than 1500 mg sodium per day. Encourage foods that are high in Potassium, such as
leafy green vegetables, fruit from vines, and root vegetables. (375). Again, think of
foods that are lowest in sodium when answering this question.
Which type of diets would be given to clients with a diagnosis of Spastic Quadriplegia
who has "dysphagia"? - correct answer. Speech therapist is often consulted; Diet
ranges from thick liquids only to solid and thick liquids. (371). Remember, the
prescribed consistency.
From test: solid to thick liquid to pudding consistency
,5 Which foods should be omitted when doing meal planning with a client with a
diagnosis of gastric ulcer? - correct answer. Bland diets has often been prescribed
for those with ulcers, esophagitis. GERD, or heartburn, gastritis, hiatal hernia, or other
disorders of the gastrointestinal tract. Alcohol, Caffeine/Decaf, Red and black pepper,
Chili powder, Fried foods and foods high in fat, peppermint and spearmint oils should be
avoiding at on the bland diet. (374)
6 Which are some interventions that should be implanted for a client who experiences
"gastroesophageal reflux" (GERD) following meals? - correct answer. Should be
encouraged to avoid other foods that may cause them discomfort. Instruct not to lie
down for an hour after meals; to maintain ideal weight, eat smaller, more frequently.
Discourage smoking and milk based diets (374).
7 How can the PT assist when delivering the dinner tray to a client whose dominant arm
is in a cast elevated on two pillows? - correct answer. Assist with spreading butter,
pouring pitcher of water into cup, slicing steak, etc. (370)
8 Which test is best for identifying correct placement of a newly inserted naso-gastric
tube? - correct answer. X-ray (PowerPoint) is the "gold standard" for a newly
inserted NG tube. After that, auscultation and aspiration are used.
9 Which action is most important for the psychiatric technician to take when feeding a
client through a naso-gastric tube? - correct answer. Head of bed should be
elevated to about 30 degrees to prevent aspiration of stomach contents (379) MOST
important is to check placement through auscultation and aspiration.
10 The psychiatric technician is preparing to administer nutrition (gavage) through a
naso-gastric tube. In which position should client be placed? - correct answer.
Sitting position aka Fowler's position and check placement prior to feeding (379).
11 What is a dangerous complication that may occur if a nasogastric tube feeding is
administered too quickly? - correct answer. Aspiration pneumonia d/t
vomiting/regurgitation, which may lead to client morbidity or mortality (379).
12. The psychiatric technician is assigned to teach a client with a diagnosis of Diabetes
Mellitus about recognizing the symptoms of hypoglycemia? Which are the signs and
symptoms? - correct answer. Sweating, shakiness, hunger, fatigue, confusion,
seizure and loss of consciousness. 374
13. Which interventions should be done IMMEDIATELY to relieve the signs and
symptoms of hypoglycemia? - correct answer. 4 ounces of any available juice 376
14. A Client with a diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus is put on a 1600-calorie ADA diet.
What is the goal of her diet teaching? - correct answer. She will eat three regularly
scheduled meals plus snacks. 376
, 15 What is the generally accepted as the "normal" range for serum blood glucose? -
correct answer. 60mg/dl - 110mg/dl. Pharmacology lecture
16 What is the most likely time for a client to experience an insulin reaction if 10 units of
regular insulin had been recieved at 0730? (Review Drug card for this information) -
correct answer. Reaction time is between 8:00 and 9:15. (Basic Injection Skill p.17)
Onset is different from Reaction time also called PEAK time. The question is asking for
peak time. That is when the insulin is exerting its greatest effect - usually 2-5 hours after
administration for Regular Insulin which is fast acting. Therefore, between 9 - 11 am is
when the PT needs to monitor the client very carefully for the symptoms described in
answer 12. (We need to discuss this in class).
17 What will be the most likely time for a client to experience an insulin reaction if the
client had recieved NPH insulin at 0730? (Review Drug Card for this information) -
correct answer. The reaction time is between 8:30 to 9:30. (Basic Injection Skill p.17)
Onset is different from Reaction time also called PEAK time. The question is asking for
peak time. That is when the insulin is exerting its greatest effect - usually 6-12 hours
after administration for NPH Insulin which is intermediate acting. Therefore, between 2 -
7 pm is when the PT needs to monitor the client very carefully for the symptoms
described in answer 12. (We need to discuss this in class).
18 What is the rationale for keeping a client NPO before surgery for approximately 8 to
10 hours? - correct answer. Clients are kept NPO before surgery to avoid
"Aspiration" - prevent stomach contents from entering lungs due to vomiting that may be
brought on by the anesthesia. 954
19 You are assigned to a patient with asthma. The doctor wrote the following orders:
Vital signs every 2 hours, respiratory treatments every 4 hours as needed, and I&O
every shift. Based on this information, when should the nurse perform assessments on
this client? 359 - correct answer. Every two hours.
20. What are the BEST type of questions to ask when obtaining a nursing history from a
client? 367 - correct answer. Why did you come to this facility today?; Are you
allergic to any medicine? What is your level of pain now? 397
21A What is the timeline for the creation of a nursing care plan? - correct answer.
Within 12 to 24 hrs. 407
21B. How often is NCP updated? - correct answer. NCP is updated regularly as the
client's condition changes. 406
21C. What is the determining factor in the revision of a NCP? - correct answer.
Revisions are done to the NCP when there is change in the client conditions OR when
the plan is not working. 400
Questions And Answers 100% Guaranteed
Success.
1 Which of the following approaches is best to take when the psychiatric technician
discovers that a postoperative surgery client who practices Judaism is eating only the
fruit and bread on his food tray? Since the nurse cannot change the dietary beliefs of
the client, the nurse can help adjust their diet within their belief structures. Kosher eating
demands the following: - correct answer. Separate dishes or pans are used to
prepare and to serve meat and dairy foods. Meats must be slaughtered by a ritual
method and only the front quarter of the animal may be eaten/ Meat and dairy may not
be eaten at the same meal. Food must be prepared ahead of time for the Sabbath
which is sundown Friday to sundown Saturday. Pork products, rabbit, shellfish, and
scavenger fish are also not allowed. (363)
Which diet is best for a client with a diagnosis of cardiovascular disease? - correct
answer. Low fat, low sodium, low calories (376-377) Think of some foods that would
be appropriate when answering the question on the exam.
3 What should be included when teaching about dietary restrictions for a client with
diagnosis of hypertension? - correct answer. Low sodium, should consume no more
than 1500 mg sodium per day. Encourage foods that are high in Potassium, such as
leafy green vegetables, fruit from vines, and root vegetables. (375). Again, think of
foods that are lowest in sodium when answering this question.
Which type of diets would be given to clients with a diagnosis of Spastic Quadriplegia
who has "dysphagia"? - correct answer. Speech therapist is often consulted; Diet
ranges from thick liquids only to solid and thick liquids. (371). Remember, the
prescribed consistency.
From test: solid to thick liquid to pudding consistency
,5 Which foods should be omitted when doing meal planning with a client with a
diagnosis of gastric ulcer? - correct answer. Bland diets has often been prescribed
for those with ulcers, esophagitis. GERD, or heartburn, gastritis, hiatal hernia, or other
disorders of the gastrointestinal tract. Alcohol, Caffeine/Decaf, Red and black pepper,
Chili powder, Fried foods and foods high in fat, peppermint and spearmint oils should be
avoiding at on the bland diet. (374)
6 Which are some interventions that should be implanted for a client who experiences
"gastroesophageal reflux" (GERD) following meals? - correct answer. Should be
encouraged to avoid other foods that may cause them discomfort. Instruct not to lie
down for an hour after meals; to maintain ideal weight, eat smaller, more frequently.
Discourage smoking and milk based diets (374).
7 How can the PT assist when delivering the dinner tray to a client whose dominant arm
is in a cast elevated on two pillows? - correct answer. Assist with spreading butter,
pouring pitcher of water into cup, slicing steak, etc. (370)
8 Which test is best for identifying correct placement of a newly inserted naso-gastric
tube? - correct answer. X-ray (PowerPoint) is the "gold standard" for a newly
inserted NG tube. After that, auscultation and aspiration are used.
9 Which action is most important for the psychiatric technician to take when feeding a
client through a naso-gastric tube? - correct answer. Head of bed should be
elevated to about 30 degrees to prevent aspiration of stomach contents (379) MOST
important is to check placement through auscultation and aspiration.
10 The psychiatric technician is preparing to administer nutrition (gavage) through a
naso-gastric tube. In which position should client be placed? - correct answer.
Sitting position aka Fowler's position and check placement prior to feeding (379).
11 What is a dangerous complication that may occur if a nasogastric tube feeding is
administered too quickly? - correct answer. Aspiration pneumonia d/t
vomiting/regurgitation, which may lead to client morbidity or mortality (379).
12. The psychiatric technician is assigned to teach a client with a diagnosis of Diabetes
Mellitus about recognizing the symptoms of hypoglycemia? Which are the signs and
symptoms? - correct answer. Sweating, shakiness, hunger, fatigue, confusion,
seizure and loss of consciousness. 374
13. Which interventions should be done IMMEDIATELY to relieve the signs and
symptoms of hypoglycemia? - correct answer. 4 ounces of any available juice 376
14. A Client with a diagnosis of Diabetes Mellitus is put on a 1600-calorie ADA diet.
What is the goal of her diet teaching? - correct answer. She will eat three regularly
scheduled meals plus snacks. 376
, 15 What is the generally accepted as the "normal" range for serum blood glucose? -
correct answer. 60mg/dl - 110mg/dl. Pharmacology lecture
16 What is the most likely time for a client to experience an insulin reaction if 10 units of
regular insulin had been recieved at 0730? (Review Drug card for this information) -
correct answer. Reaction time is between 8:00 and 9:15. (Basic Injection Skill p.17)
Onset is different from Reaction time also called PEAK time. The question is asking for
peak time. That is when the insulin is exerting its greatest effect - usually 2-5 hours after
administration for Regular Insulin which is fast acting. Therefore, between 9 - 11 am is
when the PT needs to monitor the client very carefully for the symptoms described in
answer 12. (We need to discuss this in class).
17 What will be the most likely time for a client to experience an insulin reaction if the
client had recieved NPH insulin at 0730? (Review Drug Card for this information) -
correct answer. The reaction time is between 8:30 to 9:30. (Basic Injection Skill p.17)
Onset is different from Reaction time also called PEAK time. The question is asking for
peak time. That is when the insulin is exerting its greatest effect - usually 6-12 hours
after administration for NPH Insulin which is intermediate acting. Therefore, between 2 -
7 pm is when the PT needs to monitor the client very carefully for the symptoms
described in answer 12. (We need to discuss this in class).
18 What is the rationale for keeping a client NPO before surgery for approximately 8 to
10 hours? - correct answer. Clients are kept NPO before surgery to avoid
"Aspiration" - prevent stomach contents from entering lungs due to vomiting that may be
brought on by the anesthesia. 954
19 You are assigned to a patient with asthma. The doctor wrote the following orders:
Vital signs every 2 hours, respiratory treatments every 4 hours as needed, and I&O
every shift. Based on this information, when should the nurse perform assessments on
this client? 359 - correct answer. Every two hours.
20. What are the BEST type of questions to ask when obtaining a nursing history from a
client? 367 - correct answer. Why did you come to this facility today?; Are you
allergic to any medicine? What is your level of pain now? 397
21A What is the timeline for the creation of a nursing care plan? - correct answer.
Within 12 to 24 hrs. 407
21B. How often is NCP updated? - correct answer. NCP is updated regularly as the
client's condition changes. 406
21C. What is the determining factor in the revision of a NCP? - correct answer.
Revisions are done to the NCP when there is change in the client conditions OR when
the plan is not working. 400
