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Exam (elaborations)

Pharmacology Practice Exam Questions and Verified Answers

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  • Pharmacology
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  • Pharmacology

Pharmacology Practice Exam Questions and Verified Answers Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved? A) Client states chest pain is relieved...

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  • October 20, 2024
  • 53
  • 2024/2025
  • Exam (elaborations)
  • Questions & answers
  • Pharmacology
  • Pharmacology
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sirjoel
©SIRJOEL EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/11/2024 1:41 PM



Pharmacology Practice Exam Questions and
Verified Answers


Following the administration of sublingual nitroglycerin to a client experiencing an acute anginal

attack, which assessment finding indicates to the nurse that the desired effect has been achieved?




A) Client states chest pain is relieved.

B) Client's pulse decreases from 120 to 90.

C) Client's systolic blood pressure decreases from 180 to 90.


D) Client's SaO2 level increases from 92% to 96%. - answer✔Client states chest pain is relieved.




Rationale: Nitroglycerin reduces myocardial oxygen consumption which decreases ischemia and

reduces chest pain (A). (B and D) would also occur if the angina was relieved, but are not as

significant as the client's subjective report of decreased pain. (C) may indicate a reduction in

pain, or a potentially serious side effect of the medication.

, ©SIRJOEL EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/11/2024 1:41 PM


Following heparin treatment for a pulmonary embolism, a client is being discharged with a

prescription for warfarin Coumadin. In conducting discharge teaching, the nurse advises the

client to have which diagnostic test monitored regularly after discharge?




A) Perfusion scan.

B) Prothrombin Time (PT/INR).

C) Activated partial thromboplastin (APTT).


D) Serum Coumadin level (SCL). - answer✔Prothrombin Time (PT/INR)




Rationale: When used for a client with pulmonary embolus, the therapeutic goal for warfarin

therapy is a PT 1½ to 2½ times greater than the control, or an INR of 2 to 3 (B). A perfusion

might be performed to monitor lung function, but not monthly (A). APTT is monitored for the

client receiving heparin therapy (C). A blood level for Coumadin cannot be measured (D).

A healthcare provider prescribes cephalexin monohydrate Keflex for a client with a

postoperative infection. It is most important for the nurse to assess for what additional drug

allergy before administering this prescription?




A) Penicillins.

, ©SIRJOEL EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/11/2024 1:41 PM


B) Aminoglycosides.

C) Erythromycins.


D) Sulfonamides. - answer✔Penicillin




Rationale: Cross-allergies exist between penicillins (A) and cephalosporins, such as cephalexin

monohydrate (Keflex), so checking for penicillin allergy is a wise precaution before

administering this drug.

A client is admitted to the coronary care unit with a medical diagnosis of acute myocardial

infarction. Which medication prescription decreases both preload and afterload?




A) Nitroglycerin.

B) Propranolol (Inderal).

C) Morphine.


D) Captopril (Capoten). - answer✔Nitroglycerin




Rationale: Nitroglycerin (A) is a nitrate that causes peripheral vasodilation and decreases

contractility, thereby decreasing both preload and afterload. (B) is a beta adrenergic blocker that

decreases both heart rate and contractility, but only decreases afterload. Morphine (C) decreases

, ©SIRJOEL EXAM SOLUTIONS
10/11/2024 1:41 PM


myocardial oxygen consumption and preload. Capoten (D) is an angiotensin converting enzyme

(ACE) inhibitor that acts to prevents vasoconstriction, thereby decreasing blood pressure and

afterload.

Which dosing schedule should the nurse teach the client to observe for a controlled-release

oxycodone prescription?




A) As needed.

B) Every 12 hours.

C) Every 24 hours.


D) Every 4 to 6 hours. - answer✔Every 12 hours




Rationale: A controlled-release oxycodone provides long-acting analgesia to relieve moderate to

severe pain, so a dosing schedule of every 12 hours (B) provides the best around-the-clock pain

management. Controlled-release oxycodone is not prescribed for breakthrough pain on a PRN or

as needed schedule (A). (C) is inadequate for continuous pain management. Using a schedule of

every 4 to 6 hours (D) may jeopardize patient safety due to cumulative effects.

A peak and trough level must be drawn for a client receiving antibiotic therapy. What is the

optimum time for the nurse to obtain the trough level?

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