APEA 3P Test Bank (3 Exams) Latest Updated 2024
MRSA: Treatment - Bactrim
Doxycycline
Minocycline
Clindamycin --> If patient is allergic to Sulfa do not use Bactrim
Human bites - "Dirtiest" bite of all. Watch for closed-fist injuries of the
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PHTLS Pre & Post Test Questions & Answers All correct
Graded A+ Newest 2024
A patient who withdraws from painful stimuli, opens eyes on verbal
command, and cannot speak because of intubation has a Glasgow Coma
Scale of which of the following:
A. 8
B. 8T
C. 7
D. 7T
B. 8T
(E-3, V-T, M-4)
The earliest site for intraosseous infusion is:
A. Anterior tibia, just above the tibial tuberosity
B. Anterior fibula
C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity
D. Posterior fibula
C. Anterior tibia, just below the tibial tuberosity
Which of the following behaviors is the most reliable indication of confusion
in the elderly trauma patient?
A. Inability to recall his/her name
B. Inability to recall the day of the week
C. Inability to identify his/her present location when out of his/her normal
,residence
D. Focus on repeated retelling of events that occurred years ago
A. Inability to recall his/her name
In the elderly trauma patient a high index of suspicion for shock should
occur beginning when the systolic blood pressure is less than:
A. 90 mmHg
B. 150 mmHg
C. 120 mmHg
D. 100 mmHg
C. 120 mmHg
In an adult patient, blood loss into the tissue from a fractured femur may be
as much as which of the following?
A. 150 to 500 mL
B. 500 to 1000 mL
C. 1000 2000 mL
D. 2500 to 5000 mL
C. 1000 2000 mL
Delayed death due to trauma is usually a result of:
A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial
resuscitation
B. Acute circulatory failure
C. Brain injury
D. Acute hypoxia
A. Biochemical and pathophysiological effects of inadequate initial resuscitation
,A regional resource center with a full spectrum of trauma services from
prevention to rehabilitation which serves as the leader in trauma care for a
geographical region is a:
A. Level IV trauma center
B. Level III trauma center
C. Level II trauma center
D. Level I trauma center
D. Level I trauma center
Which of the following patients is not indicated for spinal immobilization?
A. Intoxicated patient in a MVC
B. Patient who fell 8 feet and lost consciousness
C. Patient complaining of pain on palpation of the neck
D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15
D. Patient with a knife wound to the chest and a GCS of 15
The premise of PHTLS is that:
A. EMTs must treat all trauma patient based on protocols
B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate
knowledge base
C. EMTs must work only under on-line medical direction when caring for
trauma patients
D. EMTs are capable of working independently of medical direction
B. EMTs are capable of sound patient care judgment, given an adequate knowledge
base
, Which of the following warrants classification of a patient as a critical
trauma patient?
A. An extremity fracture
B. Preexisting major medical problem
C. Bleeding from the nose
D. Deployment of air bags in a motor vehicle crash
B. Preexisting major medical problem
Which of the following is the foundation of effective trauma care?
A. Protocols permitting invasive airway procedures
B. The ability to administer large amounts of crystalloid fluids
C. The ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially
life-threatening injuries
D. Effective spinal immobilization skills
C. The ability to quickly locate and manage life-threatening and potentially life-
threatening injuries
The displacement of tissue away from the path of a projectile, both
temporarily and permanently, is known as:
A. Conization
B. Cavitation
C. Crepitation
D. Contusion
B. Cavitation
The single most important factor in determining the potential for injury due
to energy exchange is:
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