Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)
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NR 602 My fina
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NR 602 My Fina
Pharm HESI Practice Exam Latest update(QUESTIONS AND ANSWERS)
A client is admitted to the hospital for a new onset of supraventricular tachycardia (SVT) and is prescribed digoxin. For which laboratory finding should the nurse notify the healthcare provider immediately?
A. Potassium level of ...
NR 602 My final Study set Exam With
Questions & Answers Newest Update
2025 ( A+ Grade)
The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner is prescribing contraception
for an adolescent who has not used birth control previously. The adolescent has a
normal exam and has no family history of cardiovascular and peripheral
vascular disease or diabetes. Which preparation is used initially? - CORRECT
ANSWERS -A combination oral contraceptive pills (OCP) with 30 to 35
mcg of estrogen and low progestin
Rationale- Pt does not have history of cardiovascular, thrombosis, stroke of diabetes
use this method first. Remember to start low then increase.
The primary care pediatric nurse practitioner needs to assess a potential
hymenal tear in a prepubertal female who is apprehensive about the exam. Which
approach will the nurse practitioner use? - CORRECT ANSWERS -Place the child in the
kneechest position on the exam table.
The mother of a 12monthold uncircumcised male infant reports that the child
seems to have pain associated with voiding. A physical examination reveals a tight,
pinpoint opening of the foreskin, which thickened and inflamed. What will the primary
care pediatric nurse practitioner do? - CORRECT ANSWERS -Refer to urologist
A 6monthold infant has a retractile testis that was noted at the 2month
well baby exam. What will the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner do to
manage this condition? - CORRECT ANSWERS -Refer the infant to a pediatric urologist
or surgeon for possible
orchiopexy.
During a well child examination of a 2yearold child, t he primary care pediatric
nurse practitioner palpates a unilateral, smooth, firm abdominal mass which does not
cross the midline. What is the next course of action that? - CORRECT ANSWERS -
Refer the child to an oncologist immediately.
An adolescent has right sided flank pain without fever. A dipstick urinalysis reveals
gross hematuria without signs of infection or bacteriuria, and the primary care pediatric
nurse practitioner diagnoses possible nephrolithiasis. What is the initial treatment or this
condition? - CORRECT ANSWERS -increasing fluid intake up to 2 L daily
Rationale- This is another name for a kidney stone, there is hematuria but no bacteriuria
which is indication for kidney stones. It is also on the R side or L side or lower back
,depending on which side the stone is at and not fever associated with it.Usually
described as Sharp
A child who had GABHS 2 weeks prior is in the clinic with periorbital
edema, dyspnea, and elevated blood pressure. A urinalysis reveals tea colored
urine with hematuria and mild proteinuria. What will the primary care pediatric nurse
practitioner do to manage this condition? - CORRECT ANSWERS -Refer the child to a
pediatric nephrologist for hospitalization
Rationalle- This can be signs of glommeripheritis. When someone has a strep infection
previous it can go the kidneys and cause this. The tea color urine is indication of kidney
failure
A 16yearold sexually active female has a fever, bilateral lower abdominal
pain,and malaise. A speculum and bimanual exam reveals adnexal tenderness.
The urinalysis is normal and cervical cultures are pending. What medications will the
primary care pediatric nurse practitioner prescribe for this patient? - CORRECT
ANSWERS -PID- she is Sexually active+Adnexal Tenderness and negative for UTI.
Ceftriaxone, doxycycline, and metronidazole
Rational- This is PID the treatment is Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM plus Doxyclicline 100 mg
BID for 14 days plus with or without Metronidazole 500 mg PO bid for 14 days.
4. A sexually active adolescent female tests positive for N. gonorrhea
and Chalmydia. She tells the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner that she
wants to be treated today since she is moving out of town the next day. What will the
nurse practitioner order?What is the treatment for her - CORRECT ANSWERS -
Ceftriaxone 250 mg IM and azithromycin 1 g PO one time each
Rational- Remember the G in Gonorehea for or Ceftriaxone and Chlamydia you can
give either Doxycycline 100 mg for 7 days or Azithromycin 1 g PO x1 because she is
moving she are giving this combination.
A 14yearold female has menometrorrhagia with moderate increase in menstrual flow
and irregular periods. Her hemoglobin is 13.1 g/dL. How will this be managed? -
CORRECT ANSWERS -Iron supplementation and prostaglandin inhibitors
Rationale: Her hemoglobin level is at 13.1 and the normal range for this age group is
11.9-15. It is better to give Iron because of the bleeding and for pain reliefe
Prostoglandins such as Ibuprofen.
An adolescent female has heavy periods that are also irregular. The physical exam is
normal. A complete blood count reveals a hemoglobin of 8.9 g/dL. What test will the
primary care pediatric nurse practitioner order next? - CORRECT ANSWERS -
Coagulation studies
, Rational-The normal Hemoglobin range is 11.9-13.1 and she is outside the range. We
need to look for reasons of this.
An adolescent female has periods every 30 days that are consistently
heavy and last from 5 to 8 days. What is her diagnosis? - CORRECT ANSWERS -
Menorrhagia-
Rationale- The diagnosis for this is periods lasting longer than 7 days. Hers are lasting 8
days. She is consistant with when her periods start so it won't be menometrorrhagia
because that is irregular periods.
A 16yearold female has not had a menstrual period yet and is concerned. She
denies sexual activity. An exam reveals an adult sexual maturity rating.
Which laboratory test will the primary care pediatric nurse practitioner order initially? -
CORRECT ANSWERS -Pregnancy Test
Rationale- All people lie and the number one reason for Ammenorrhea is pregnancy.
After I rule out that then I can look at other things such as nutrition, is she an athlete and
is it Primary Amenorrhea which is failure to have a period for 3 years or creast
development or by age 15. or Secondary Anemia which is no menstrual periods for 3
months or absent of period for 6 months for those on irregular periods.
A 16yearold female reports breast tenderness and a "lump." The primary care pediatric
nurse practitioner palpates a small fluidfilled mass in her right breast. - CORRECT
ANSWERS -Order an Ultra Sound of Breast
Rationale- First thing you always do is order an ultra sound first to determine reason.
Most girls this age do not have breast cancer.
A 15yearold n female has a positive pregnancy test and asks the primary care
pediatric nurse practitioner not to tell her parents. She is tearful and says she isn't sure
she wants to keep the baby. What will the nurse practitioner do first? - CORRECT
ANSWERS -Determine the state mandated reporting laws.
Rationale- Each state has different laws on reporting to parents about STIs and
Pregnancy.
A 17yearold sexually active female who began having periods at age 14 reports having
moderate to severe dull lower abdominal pain associated
predominantly with periods but that occurs at other times as well. The history reveals a
recent onset of these symptoms. A pregnancy test is negative. Which course of action is
most important? - CORRECT ANSWERS -Perform a full diagnostic workup to evaluate
potential causes.
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