CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 4 with 100% Correct answers
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Course
CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
Institution
CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
What is the primary purpose of a security operations center (SOC)?
• A) To develop new security technologies
• B) To manage and respond to security incidents
• C) To conduct employee training
• Answer: B) To manage and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: A SOC is respon...
CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 4 with 100% Correct answers
1. What is the primary purpose of a security operations center (SOC)?
• A) To develop new security technologies
• B) To manage and respond to security incidents
• C) To conduct employee training
• Answer: B) To manage and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: A SOC is responsible for monitoring, detecting, and responding to security threats
and incidents in real-time.
2. Which of the following is a common function of a Security Information and
Event Management (SIEM) system?
• A) Data storage
• B) Centralized logging and event correlation
• C) End-user training
• Answer: B) Centralized logging and event correlation
• Explanation: SIEM systems collect and analyze log data from various sources to help identify
security incidents through event correlation.
3. What does a vulnerability assessment typically identify?
• A) Security policies
• B) Potential weaknesses in a system
• C) User access rights
• Answer: B) Potential weaknesses in a system
• Explanation: Vulnerability assessments focus on identifying and evaluating weaknesses in an
organization's systems and networks.
4. Which of the following is an example of a passive security control?
• A) Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)
• B) Firewalls
• C) Surveillance cameras
• Answer: C) Surveillance cameras
• Explanation: Surveillance cameras are a passive control that monitors and records activities but
does not actively prevent incidents.
5. What is the primary goal of incident response?
• A) To prevent all attacks
• B) To minimize damage and recover from incidents
• C) To eliminate all vulnerabilities
• Answer: B) To minimize damage and recover from incidents
, • Explanation: Incident response aims to manage and mitigate the impact of security incidents,
ensuring a quick recovery and reducing potential damage.
6. Which of the following describes a "white hat" hacker?
• A) A malicious hacker who exploits vulnerabilities
• B) A hacker who helps organizations secure their systems
• C) A hacker who develops new hacking tools
• Answer: B) A hacker who helps organizations secure their systems
• Explanation: White hat hackers use their skills for ethical purposes, often performing
penetration testing and vulnerability assessments for organizations.
7. What is the main function of an Intrusion Detection System (IDS)?
• A) To block malicious traffic
• B) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity
• C) To manage user access rights
• Answer: B) To monitor network traffic for suspicious activity
• Explanation: An IDS is designed to detect and alert on potentially harmful activities or breaches
in a network.
8. Which of the following is a common indicator of compromise (IoC)?
• A) Network traffic patterns
• B) Software performance metrics
• C) User activity logs
• Answer: A) Network traffic patterns
• Explanation: Unusual network traffic patterns can indicate a potential security breach or
compromise, making them key IoCs.
9. What is the primary benefit of implementing multi-factor authentication
(MFA)?
• A) It simplifies user login
• B) It improves user experience
• C) It adds an additional layer of security
• Answer: C) It adds an additional layer of security
• Explanation: MFA enhances security by requiring multiple forms of verification, making
unauthorized access significantly more difficult.
10. Which of the following is an essential part of a disaster recovery plan (DRP)?
• A) Employee training
• B) Data backup procedures
• C) Network monitoring
• Answer: B) Data backup procedures
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