CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 1 with 100% Correct answers
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Course
CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
Institution
CASP - Comptia Advanced Security Practitioner
What is the primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?
• A) To develop security policies
• B) To monitor and respond to security incidents
• C) To conduct employee training
• Answer: B) To monitor and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: The SOC is responsibl...
CompTIA CASP+ Security Operations Test 1 with 100% Correct answers
1. What is the primary purpose of a Security Operations Center (SOC)?
• A) To develop security policies
• B) To monitor and respond to security incidents
• C) To conduct employee training
• Answer: B) To monitor and respond to security incidents
• Explanation: The SOC is responsible for real-time monitoring, detection, and response to
security incidents to protect organizational assets.
2. Which of the following best describes a SIEM (Security Information and Event
Management) system?
• A) A tool for managing user identities
• B) A system for collecting and analyzing security data
• C) A database for storing encryption keys
• Answer: B) A system for collecting and analyzing security data
• Explanation: SIEM systems aggregate and analyze log data from various sources to detect and
respond to security incidents.
3. What is a primary function of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?
• A) To prevent attacks
• B) To log user activity
• C) To detect and alert on potential security breaches
• Answer: C) To detect and alert on potential security breaches
• Explanation: IDS monitors network or system activities for malicious activities and raises alerts
when suspicious behavior is detected.
4. Which type of malware is designed to replicate itself and spread to other
systems?
• A) Trojan
• B) Worm
• C) Ransomware
• Answer: B) Worm
• Explanation: A worm is a type of malware that self-replicates and spreads across networks
without needing to attach to other programs.
5. What does the term "threat intelligence" refer to?
• A) Information about threats and vulnerabilities
• B) Data on user behavior
, • C) Statistics on network performance
• Answer: A) Information about threats and vulnerabilities
• Explanation: Threat intelligence involves analyzing data about potential or active threats to
improve an organization's security posture.
6. What is the primary objective of vulnerability management?
• A) To increase network speed
• B) To identify and remediate security weaknesses
• C) To reduce operational costs
• Answer: B) To identify and remediate security weaknesses
• Explanation: Vulnerability management aims to continuously identify, assess, and remediate
security vulnerabilities to protect the organization.
7. Which of the following is an example of a technical control?
• A) Security awareness training
• B) Access control lists
• C) Security policies
• Answer: B) Access control lists
• Explanation: Access control lists (ACLs) are technical controls that restrict access to resources
based on defined policies.
8. What is the primary purpose of an incident response plan (IRP)?
• A) To reduce the number of incidents
• B) To define procedures for responding to security incidents
• C) To eliminate all vulnerabilities
• Answer: B) To define procedures for responding to security incidents
• Explanation: An IRP outlines the steps to be taken when a security incident occurs, ensuring a
structured and efficient response.
9. Which of the following techniques is commonly used to ensure data integrity?
• A) Encryption
• B) Hashing
• C) Steganography
• Answer: B) Hashing
• Explanation: Hashing generates a unique fixed-size string of characters for data, allowing
verification of integrity by comparing hashes.
10. What does "least privilege" mean in the context of access control?
• A) Users have unlimited access to all resources
• B) Users have the minimum access necessary to perform their job functions
• C) All users have the same access rights
• Answer: B) Users have the minimum access necessary to perform their job functions
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